2.3.17 · D5Modern Physics
Question bank — Spin — intrinsic angular momentum
The geometry behind (build it, don't quote it)

Larmor precession: why a uniform field splits energies, not beams

True or false — justify
Spin magnitude changes if you apply a strong magnetic field.
False. A field only sets the energy of each orientation via (where is the moment's -projection and the field magnitude); the length is fixed by the particle's identity, like its mass or charge.
An electron's spin can point exactly along the axis.
False. Pointing along means and hence known exactly — but forbids both from being sharp once is fixed. The compromise is a fixed tilt: , so (see the spin-cone figure).
For an electron, is the same as the length of the spin vector.
False. is only the projection (shadow) onto ; the full length is , larger because also contribute to .
A spin- particle has exactly two possible outcomes in Stern–Gerlach.
True. The count is , matching . Each value of is one discrete deflection, so the beam splits into exactly two.
Because silver atoms have , they should feel no magnetic force, so Stern–Gerlach was a null result.
False. kills the orbital moment, but the lone valence electron's spin moment remains — that residual moment is precisely what split the beam and forced us to invent spin.
Spin is a form of orbital motion happening very fast inside the atom.
False. Spin is intrinsic: it exists even for a point particle with no spatial extent and no orbit. A classical spinning sphere giving would need its surface moving faster than light.
The spin g-factor equals 1, just like the orbital g-factor.
False. Orbital motion gives , but the electron spin has the anomalous . This "extra factor of two" is a genuinely relativistic/quantum result, explained by the Dirac Equation.
A photon, being a "spin-1" particle, gives three Stern–Gerlach-style spots.
False (trap). A massive spin-1 particle would give . But a photon is massless, so it can be seen in only two helicity states (, the two circular polarizations); the state is forbidden (see the "why" item below). Massless particles break the naive count.
Spot the error
"The spin magnitude is ." — where's the slip?
The writer used the projection formula for the magnitude. Magnitude uses , giving ; only uses .
"Since , the allowed are ." — where's the slip?
runs from to in integer steps, i.e. only. Negative values are mandatory and there are exactly of them, never three.
"The magnetic moment is ." — two errors, name them.
The sign is wrong (electron charge is negative, so points opposite to : a minus sign), and the factor is missing: .
"Because and is biggest, the eigenvalue should be ." — where's the slip?
The three components can't all be sharp at once, so contributes even when is maximal. That extra piece turns into .
"A spin-1 particle in Stern–Gerlach shows two spots, since spin means up/down." — where's the slip?
"Up/down" is specific to spin-. For a massive , gives spots. The number of orientations grows with .
"In a uniform field an electron beam still splits into two." — where's the slip?
Splitting needs a gradient: . A uniform field () exerts zero net force — it only makes the moment precess (Larmor), not deflect (see the precession figure).
Why questions
Why did Stern–Gerlach give a clean split rather than a continuous smear?
A classical moment could point any direction, smearing deflections continuously; instead takes only discrete values, so only discrete forces occur — discreteness of quantization made visible.
Why is spin called "intrinsic"?
It is a permanent, unchangeable property of the particle itself, not caused by motion through space — you cannot spin it up, slow it down, or remove it.
Why does the spin vector never fully align with the measurement axis?
If aligned with , all three components would be simultaneously sharp (, ), contradicting . Nature keeps and sharp and blurs around a cone whose half-angle is the fixed .
Why does a uniform field split energy levels but not the beam?
A uniform field gives a torque that makes precess (Larmor) without changing , so no net translational force acts. But each orientation still has energy , and the two values give two energies — an energy split, which is the Zeeman Effect.
Why do we say the electron's is "anomalous"?
The classical current-loop picture predicts ; the observed doubling of the spin magnetism has no classical explanation and only emerges from the relativistic Dirac Equation.
Why can spin have half-integer quantum numbers while orbital angular momentum cannot?
Both obey the ladder rule that forces to be a non-negative integer, allowing . Orbital has an extra constraint — its wavefunction must return to itself after a full spatial turn, forbidding half-integers. Spin, tied to the double-cover group of rotations (where a turn flips the sign and only restores it), carries no such single-valuedness demand, so half-integers survive.
Why is the helicity state forbidden for a photon?
A massless particle moves at , so you can never jump to a frame where it is at rest and turn its spin around; only its projection along its own motion (the helicity) is physical, and gauge invariance removes the longitudinal () mode. Hence a photon shows only , the two transverse (circular) polarizations.
Why is spin- essential for the Pauli Exclusion Principle?
Half-integer spin makes electrons fermions, whose total wavefunction must be antisymmetric under exchange; that antisymmetry is exactly what forbids two electrons from sharing all quantum numbers.
Why does the same magnitude formula apply to both spin states of an electron?
The magnitude depends only on , never on ; both share , so both have and differ only in orientation.
Edge cases
What happens in Stern–Gerlach for a spin- particle?
: a single undeflected spot. No magnetic moment from spin means no splitting — this is the "expected" classical-looking result.
For a hypothetical spin- particle, how many spots and which ?
spots, with . Note none of these is , so the pattern is symmetric about the centre with no central spot.
Take : does the angle formula still make sense?
No — with the only is and , giving . There is no vector to tilt; the "angle" is undefined because the spin is simply zero.
As grows very large, what does for the top state () approach?
, so . Large spins behave more classically, aligning almost fully with the axis — the quantum "tilt" fades.
If the field gradient is reversed in sign, what changes about the two spots?
The two deflections swap sides: the spin-up and spin-down beams exchange which way they bend, since flips sign for each. The number of spots (two) is unchanged.
What is the magnetic force on a spin sitting in a perfectly uniform (zero-gradient) field?
Zero net translational force, so no deflection; the moment only precesses (Larmor) and its orientations acquire different energies (the basis of the Zeeman Effect).
Connections
- Stern-Gerlach Experiment — every "spots" item lives here.
- Orbital Angular Momentum — contrast: integer-only, .
- Quantum Numbers — where sits in the full label.
- Pauli Exclusion Principle · Zeeman Effect · Fine Structure · Bohr Magneton · Dirac Equation.