2.3.28 · D5Modern Physics

Question bank — Lorentz transformation — derivation

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Before we start, the symbols used everywhere below:

  • = lab frame, = frame moving at speed along the shared -axis.
  • = speed of light (same in every frame — the whole point).
  • = the Lorentz factor, always .
  • An event = a point in spacetime, coordinates in and in .

True or false — justify

Is the transform valid for any relative speed ?
Only for . At the root is zero, so blows up and the formula breaks — no massive frame can reach .
Time dilation and length contraction are two independent postulates.
False. Both are consequences of the single pair ; you derive them, you don't assume them.
The Lorentz transformation reduces to the Galilean transformation when .
True. Then so and the term , leaving . The old theory survives as a limit.
can be less than 1 for some speeds.
False. For we have , so the root is and its reciprocal is always. Moving clocks run slow, never fast.
Two events simultaneous in are simultaneous in every frame.
False. If but , then gives different for each — this is Relativity of simultaneity.
The spacetime interval has the same value in and .
True. Direct substitution shows the cross terms cancel and ; see Spacetime interval.
The transverse coordinates change under a boost along .
False. Motion is along only, so and — nothing squeezes perpendicular to the motion.
Length contraction means the rod physically compresses like a spring.
False. Nothing pushes on it; it's a geometric result of measuring both ends at the same lab time. In the rod's own frame it has full length.
The inverse transform uses a different formula from the forward one.
False (in structure). It's the same formula with , because moves at as seen from — neither frame is special.

Spot the error

A student writes (forgetting ).
The whole time equation must be scaled by : . Dropping violates the light-speed condition and the interval invariance.
A student adds velocities as for a beam of light .
That gives , breaking the postulate. The correct Relativistic velocity addition returns exactly when .
A student says "the moving clock in runs fast because it gains the factor."
Backwards. The moving clock runs slow: a proper time interval in appears as in the lab, so more lab time passes per tick.
A student measures a rod's length by noting its two ends at different lab times.
Invalid. Length requires both ends recorded at the same (set ). Different times let the rod move between readings, corrupting the measurement.
A student claims the derivation needs a curved (nonlinear) map to fit the data.
No. Homogeneity of space and uniformity of time force the map to be linear — straight-line (uniform) motion must map to straight-line motion, which only linear maps do.
A student writes the interval as (plus sign).
Wrong sign. The invariant is ; the minus is what distinguishes spacetime geometry from ordinary Euclidean distance.
A student concludes implies for all events.
Not general. The sign and size of depend on the specific ; for many events is smaller or negative. scales, but can be any sign.

Why questions

Why must the transform be linear?
Because space is homogeneous and time uniform, a free particle moving uniformly in must move uniformly in ; only linear maps send straight lines to straight lines.
Why is the same factor used in both the forward and inverse transforms?
The principle of relativity says neither frame is privileged, so the inverse must look identical with , forcing one common stretch factor.
Why does the term appear in the time equation and not in Galileo's?
Because the light-speed demand mixes space into time; the term is exactly what makes distant, spatially-separated events shift in time between frames.
Why divide the two light-cone equations to find ?
Each alone tangles and ; multiplying and dividing lets the cancel, isolating cleanly.
Why did the Michelson–Morley experiment force this whole rebuild?
It found light's speed unchanged regardless of Earth's motion, killing the additive-velocity picture and demanding a transform that keeps fixed in every frame.
Why does the factor sit next to rather than ?
Because has units of time per length squared... more precisely carries units of time, converting a spatial offset into the time shift the equation needs.

Edge cases

What happens to as ?
: the transform becomes the Galilean — no relativistic effects at rest.
What happens to as ?
: lengths contract toward zero and time dilation grows without bound, which is why is unreachable for massive frames.
For a light pulse itself, what is the spacetime interval ?
Exactly zero: on the path , . Light lies on the "light cone," a null interval in every frame.
If is negative (frame moving in direction), do the formulas still hold?
Yes. depends on so it's unchanged, and the signed inside and automatically handles the reversed direction.
For two events at the same place in (), what does become?
— pure Time dilation with no simultaneity mixing, since the term drops out.
Is there any frame where two timelike-separated events swap order?
No. If (timelike), the interval's sign guarantees the time-ordering is preserved in all frames, protecting cause and effect.
Recall Final self-test
  • Name the one demand that fixes . ::: The speed of light equals in both frames.
  • Name the quantity invariant under the boost. ::: The spacetime interval .
  • Where do time dilation and length contraction come from? ::: Both are consequences of the two Lorentz equations, not separate postulates.