Intuition What this page is for
The parent note gave you the machine: W = ∫ F d x = area under the force–position graph. This page runs that machine through every kind of problem an exam can throw at you. We first lay out a matrix of all the case-classes, then solve one worked example per class so you never meet a scenario you haven't already seen.
Before anything else, one reminder about the symbols we use, so nobody is lost from line one:
Definition The three characters in every problem
F ( x ) — the force , measured in newtons (N). "How hard we push." It may be a number that changes as position x changes — that's the whole point.
x — the position , measured in metres (m). "Where we are along the path."
W — the work , measured in joules (J). "Total effort delivered," and it is the ==area between the F ( x ) curve and the x -axis==, counted as positive above the axis and negative below it .
The symbol ∫ a b F ( x ) d x reads: "add up all the tiny rectangles F ( x ) ⋅ d x as x runs from a to b ." We use an integral and not simple multiplication because F refuses to hold still — see Area under curves and the definite integral .
Every variable-force work problem is one (or a blend) of these cells. The right column names the example that covers it.
#
Case class
What's tricky about it
Covered by
C1
Force from a formula, positive throughout
routine integrate-and-plug
Ex 1
C2
Force negative throughout (opposes motion)
sign of the answer
Ex 2
C3
Force changes sign mid-path
area above and below axis cancel
Ex 3
C4
Force given only as a graph (piecewise)
compute geometric area, no formula
Ex 4
C5
Spring / Hooke's law — "by spring" vs "against spring"
opposite signs, 2 1 k x 2
Ex 5
C6
Reversed limits (moving backwards)
swapping limits flips the sign
Ex 6
C7
Degenerate / limiting inputs (F = 0 , zero displacement, k → ∞ )
edge behaviour, sanity checks
Ex 7
C8
Force at an angle — the cos θ dot product
only the along-motion component works
Ex 8
C9
Real-world word problem (stickier floor)
translating words → integral
Ex 9
C10
Exam twist : inverse-square force to infinity
improper integral, limit at ∞
Ex 10
Now we hit every cell.
Worked example Ex 1 — a growing force
F ( x ) = ( 4 x + 3 ) N pushes a block from x = 0 to x = 5 m , force always along motion. Find W .
Forecast: Guess first — the force starts at 3 N and ends at 23 N. The average is somewhere near 13 N over 5 m, so expect roughly 65 J. Hold that number.
Write W = ∫ 0 5 ( 4 x + 3 ) d x .
Why this step? F depends on x , so a single "F d " is a lie; we slice-push-sum, which is the integral.
Antiderivative term-by-term: ∫ 4 x d x = 2 x 2 , ∫ 3 d x = 3 x . So W = [ 2 x 2 + 3 x ] 0 5 .
Why this step? The antiderivative is the running-total-of-area function; evaluating it at the ends gives the net area — the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus.
Plug: ( 2 ⋅ 25 + 3 ⋅ 5 ) − ( 0 ) = 50 + 15 = 65 J .
Verify: Average force = 2 3 + 23 = 13 N (valid because F is linear ), times 5 m = 65 J. Matches step 3 and our forecast. Units: N·m = J. ✓
Worked example Ex 2 — a retarding force
F ( x ) = − 6 x N (points opposite motion the whole way) acts as a body moves x = 0 → x = 3 m . Find W .
Forecast: Every slice F d x is negative, so the total must be negative — energy leaves the body.
W = ∫ 0 3 ( − 6 x ) d x .
Why this step? Same slice-and-sum; the minus sign is just carried along.
= − 6 [ 2 x 2 ] 0 3 = − 6 ⋅ 2 9 = − 27 J .
Why this step? ∫ x d x = x 2 /2 ; the area lies below the axis, so it counts negative.
Verify: Average force = 2 0 + ( − 18 ) = − 9 N over 3 m = − 27 J. Sign negative as forecast. ✓
This is the one students miss: part of the journey the force helps, part it hinders. See the figure — the green area (helping) and red area (hindering) partly cancel.
Worked example Ex 3 — help then hinder
F ( x ) = ( 6 − 3 x ) N , body moves x = 0 → x = 4 m . Find W . Where does the force flip sign?
Forecast: F = 0 when 6 − 3 x = 0 ⇒ x = 2 . Before x = 2 , F > 0 (helps); after, F < 0 (hinders). The two areas may nearly cancel — expect something small.
W = ∫ 0 4 ( 6 − 3 x ) d x = [ 6 x − 2 3 x 2 ] 0 4 .
Why this step? One integral automatically handles both signs — positive area above the axis, negative below, added with their signs. No need to split.
= ( 24 − 2 3 ⋅ 16 ) − 0 = 24 − 24 = 0 J .
Why this step? The helping triangle and hindering triangle happen to be equal here, so the net work is exactly zero.
Verify — split and check:
0 → 2 : triangle 2 1 ( 2 ) ( 6 ) = + 6 J (above axis, green).
2 → 4 : triangle 2 1 ( 2 ) ( − 6 ) = − 6 J (below axis, red).
Sum = 0 J. ✓ Matches step 2, confirming the "areas cancel" reading.
Worked example Ex 4 — read the area off the picture
A force follows the graph below: it holds at 10 N from x = 0 → 2 m, ramps down linearly to 0 at x = 5 m. Find W .
Forecast: No formula given — but work is area , and area we can compute with rulers. Expect a rectangle plus a triangle.
Rectangle (0 → 2 ): 10 N × 2 m = 20 J.
Why this step? Over this stretch F is constant, so its area is simply length × height (the F d special case).
Triangle (2 → 5 ): 2 1 × base × height = 2 1 ( 3 ) ( 10 ) = 15 J.
Why this step? A linear ramp encloses a triangle; the integral of a straight line is the triangle's area.
Total W = 20 + 15 = 35 J.
Verify: As a formula, on 2 → 5 the line is F = 10 − 3 10 ( x − 2 ) , and ∫ 2 5 F d x = 15 J (average height 5 N × base 3 m). Add the rectangle: 35 J. ✓
Worked example Ex 5 — the two-sign spring
A spring has k = 200 N/m . It is stretched from x = 0 to x 0 = 0.1 m .
(a) Work done by you pulling it. (b) Work done by the spring .
Forecast: These must be equal and opposite — you pour energy in, the spring resists, storing it. See Hooke's law and spring potential energy .
The spring force is F spring = − k x (pulls back toward x = 0 ). You must apply F you = + k x to balance it.
Why this step? Defining which force we integrate is the whole battle here.
(a) W you = ∫ 0 0.1 k x d x = 2 1 k x 0 2 = 2 1 ( 200 ) ( 0.1 ) 2 = 1 J .
Why this step? Positive force along positive displacement → positive work, stored as spring energy.
(b) W spring = ∫ 0 0.1 ( − k x ) d x = − 2 1 k x 0 2 = − 1 J .
Why this step? Spring force opposes the stretch, so it does negative work.
Verify: W you = + 1 J, W spring = − 1 J — equal and opposite as forecast, sum zero (no net kinetic gain if pulled slowly). Geometrically each is the triangle 2 1 x 0 ⋅ ( k x 0 ) = 2 1 ( 0.1 ) ( 20 ) = 1 J. ✓
Worked example Ex 6 — walking the path in reverse
Using F ( x ) = 4 x + 3 from Ex 1 , now the block moves from x = 5 back to x = 0 . Find W .
Forecast: Same force, opposite direction of travel — the work should be the negative of Ex 1, so − 65 J.
W = ∫ 5 0 ( 4 x + 3 ) d x .
Why this step? Direction of motion sets the order of the limits; here we start at 5 and end at 0 .
Swapping limits flips sign: ∫ 5 0 = − ∫ 0 5 = − 65 J .
Why this step? ∫ b a f = − ∫ a b f — a definition of the definite integral, and physically the displacement d r now points the other way, flipping every F d x .
Verify: Ex 1 gave + 65 J forward; reversing gives − 65 J. Their sum is 0 — a full round trip does zero net work for a position-only force. ✓
Worked example Ex 7 — the edge cases (never trip on these)
Check three degenerate scenarios.
Forecast: Each should collapse to an "obvious" answer; if the machine is right, it agrees.
Zero force , F ( x ) = 0 over any path: W = ∫ a b 0 d x = 0 J.
Why this step? No push ⇒ no work, regardless of distance. Area under the x -axis line is zero.
Zero displacement , any F , a = b : W = ∫ a a F d x = 0 J.
Why this step? Width of every slice is zero ⇒ no area. You can strain forever holding a wall: zero mechanical work.
Stiff-spring limit : for W = 2 1 k x 0 2 , hold the energy fixed at E and let k → ∞ . Then x 0 = 2 E / k → 0 .
Why this step? An infinitely stiff spring barely stretches; to store the same energy it needs almost no displacement. Consistent, not paradoxical.
Verify: (1) 0 J, (2) 0 J, (3) x 0 = 2 E / k → 0 as k → ∞ . All three behave as physical intuition demands. ✓
Only the part of the force along the motion does work. The figure resolves F into a useful (along-path) piece and a wasted (perpendicular) piece — see Dot product and components of vectors .
Worked example Ex 8 — pushing a sled at an angle
You pull a sled a distance d = 10 m with a rope at θ = 6 0 ∘ above horizontal. The tension is not constant: T ( x ) = ( 2 x + 5 ) N where x is distance travelled. Motion is horizontal. Find W .
Forecast: Only cos 6 0 ∘ = 2 1 of the tension pulls forward; the vertical part does zero work. So expect half of what a straight pull would give.
General work: d W = F ⋅ d r = T ( x ) cos θ d x .
Why this step? The dot product keeps only the component of force along the displacement; cos 6 0 ∘ = 2 1 .
W = ∫ 0 10 ( 2 x + 5 ) ( 2 1 ) d x = 2 1 [ x 2 + 5 x ] 0 10 .
Why this step? cos θ is a constant here, so it pulls outside the integral.
= 2 1 ( 100 + 50 ) = 2 1 ( 150 ) = 75 J .
Verify: A straight (θ = 0 ) pull would give ∫ 0 10 ( 2 x + 5 ) d x = 150 J; at 6 0 ∘ we get half, 75 J, as forecast. The vertical component does 0 J (perpendicular to horizontal motion). ✓
Worked example Ex 9 — the ever-stickier floor
You push a cart across a floor whose friction grows with distance: the force you must apply is F ( x ) = ( 8 + 2 x ) N over the first 6 m (x in metres). How much work do you do?
Forecast: Starts easy (8 N), ends hard (20 N). Average about 14 N over 6 m ⇒ roughly 84 J.
Translate words → integral: W = ∫ 0 6 ( 8 + 2 x ) d x .
Why this step? "Force keeps changing with position" is the literal signal to reach for ∫ F d x (the parent-note mnemonic: variable force? reach for the integral sign ).
= [ 8 x + x 2 ] 0 6 = 48 + 36 = 84 J .
Why this step? Antiderivative of 8 is 8 x ; of 2 x is x 2 ; evaluate at the ends.
Verify: Linear force ⇒ average = 2 8 + 20 = 14 N, times 6 m = 84 J. Matches forecast. Units N·m = J. ✓
Worked example Ex 10 — escaping to infinity against
1/ x 2
A repulsive force F ( x ) = x 2 c with c = 8 N⋅m 2 pushes a particle outward along x . Find the work done by this force as the particle moves from x = 2 m all the way to x = ∞ .
Forecast: The force weakens fast (∝ 1/ x 2 ), so even though the distance is infinite, the area under the curve may be finite . Expect a modest number.
W = ∫ 2 ∞ x 2 c d x .
Why this step? Still slice-push-sum, but the upper limit is infinite — an improper integral, handled by taking a limit.
Antiderivative of x − 2 is − x − 1 : W = c [ − x 1 ] 2 ∞ = c ( lim b → ∞ ( − b 1 ) − ( − 2 1 ) ) .
Why this step? − 1/ x is the running-area function; we evaluate the top end as a limit.
As b → ∞ , − 1/ b → 0 . So W = c ( 0 + 2 1 ) = 2 c = 2 8 = 4 J .
Why this step? The tail contributes nothing in the limit; the whole infinite journey costs a finite 4 J.
Verify: ∫ 2 ∞ 8 x − 2 d x = 8 ⋅ 2 1 = 4 J — finite despite infinite range, exactly as forecast. This is the mechanism behind escape energy in Conservative forces and potential energy . ✓
Recall Quick self-test (cover the answers)
Ex 3 net work, and why? ::: 0 J — equal helping and hindering triangles cancel.
Ex 6 vs Ex 1 relationship? ::: Reversed limits flip the sign: − 65 J vs + 65 J.
Ex 8 why factor of 2 1 ? ::: cos 6 0 ∘ = 2 1 ; only the along-motion component works.
Ex 10 why is the answer finite? ::: Force ∝ 1/ x 2 decays fast enough that the infinite-range area converges.
Work over zero displacement? ::: Always 0 J — every slice has zero width.
Mnemonic The scenario-matrix reflex
"Formula or graph? Sign or angle? Finite or infinite?" — name the cell first, then the same machine W = ∫ F d x solves them all.
Same machine W = integral F dx