4.6.8 · D5Ordinary Differential Equations
Question bank — Existence and uniqueness theorem — Picard-Lindelöf (statement)

Notation reminders used throughout: the IVP is ; bounds on the rectangle ; is the Lipschitz constant in ; is the guaranteed half-width of the interval.
The operator (which most traps circle around) and the Bielecki weighted norm weight both have their own picture too:


True or false — justify
True or false: If is continuous on the rectangle , the IVP has exactly one solution.
False. Continuity alone gives existence (Peano) but can lose uniqueness; you need the Lipschitz condition in to pin down a single solution. Example: is continuous yet has two solutions through .
True or false: The Lipschitz condition must hold in the variable .
False. The contraction estimate uses , comparing the same at two different -values. Lipschitz is needed in ; mere continuity in suffices.
True or false: If exists and is bounded on a convex region, then is Lipschitz in there.
True. By the Mean Value Theorem , so works. This is the everyday way we find .
True or false: Being Lipschitz in is strictly stronger than being continuous in .
True. Lipschitz implies (uniform) continuity, but is continuous and not Lipschitz near (its -slope blows up). So the class of Lipschitz functions is a proper subset.
True or false: The theorem guarantees the solution on the entire rectangle .
False. The solution is guaranteed only on , because the graph may hit the top/bottom of the box (height ) before reaches . The result is local.
True or false: Picard–Lindelöf requires as a hypothesis.
False. is a convenience of one proof route (direct Banach in the sup-norm). The factorial estimate or the Bielecki weighted norm makes the operator a contraction on the whole interval for any , so no such hypothesis is imposed.
True or false: Uniqueness in the theorem comes from continuity, existence from Lipschitz.
False (both halves). It is roughly the reverse of the naive slogan and even that reversal is imprecise: in the Picard proof the Lipschitz estimate drives both convergence (existence) and uniqueness; continuity supplies the bound that lets iteration start.
True or false: If is continuous in and globally Lipschitz in on all of , the solution exists for all .
True. A global Lipschitz bound gives linear growth , which by Grönwall rules out finite-time blow-up, so the Maximal interval of existence is all of . (The subtlety is only that "Lipschitz on a rectangle" gives just the local ; genuinely global Lipschitz gives the whole line.)
True or false: A larger Lipschitz constant can only shrink the guaranteed interval .
False. does not contain at all — governs convergence speed and uniqueness, not the length . Only (the size bound) shrinks .
Spot the error
"Since , the solution's slope is at most , so after distance it rises at most — that always fits inside height ."
Error: need not be . If the graph escapes the box, which is exactly why we shrink to and take .
" satisfies , so is a contraction — done."
Error: that is a contraction only when . For the parent's worked example (where ) we get , so this step fails; you need the factorial bound or Bielecki weighted norm instead.
" is differentiable in , and differentiable functions are Lipschitz, so uniqueness holds."
Error: is unbounded as , so is not Lipschitz near . Differentiability with an unbounded derivative does not give Lipschitz, and uniqueness indeed fails.
"To prove convergence of the Picard iterates we differentiate the ODE for robustness."
Error: we integrate, not differentiate. Converting into turns a fragile derivative condition into a robust integral operator whose fixed point we chase.
"Grönwall's inequality proves the iterates converge."
Error: Grönwall is used for uniqueness (forcing ). Convergence of the iterates comes from the Weierstrass M-test on the factorial bound.
"The bound only converges if ."
Error: factorials beat any exponential — the series sums to for every finite . That is precisely why the proof survives .
Why questions
Why does the proof integrate the ODE instead of working with directly?
Because integration is a smoothing, contractive operation: the operator maps continuous functions to continuous functions and its fixed points are exactly the solutions, letting us invoke fixed-point machinery.
Why must be a minimum, not just ?
Two independent constraints must both hold — stay inside the box vertically () and horizontally (). The tighter one wins, so .
Why is a fixed point of the same thing as a solution of the IVP?
If then ; differentiating gives and setting gives . The equivalence runs both ways.
Why does uniqueness need Lipschitz and not just continuity?
Continuity lets many candidate graphs squeeze through a point where 's -slope is unbounded (like at ). Lipschitz caps that slope, and via Grönwall two solutions cannot separate.
Why can we sometimes recover the full interval even after shrinking to for the Banach step?
By continuation: solve on a short contraction interval, then restart from its endpoint as a new initial condition and patch the pieces together, extending the solution up to (and toward the Maximal interval of existence).
Why does the Bielecki weighted norm help?
The exponential weight discounts values far from , absorbing the factor that would otherwise force ; under this norm becomes a genuine contraction on the whole interval for any .
Why is (not ) the quantity that controls the length ?
bounds the slope, so it dictates how fast the graph can climb toward the top of the box; governs how fast nearby solutions pull together (convergence/uniqueness), which is a separate concern from staying inside .
Edge cases
What happens if on the rectangle?
Then , so and — a constant. The formula is , so ; the trivial solution exists on the whole width, consistent with the theorem.
What if the starting point lies exactly on the boundary of where jumps?
The hypotheses require continuous (hence bounded) on the closed containing ; if is discontinuous there, no exists and the theorem simply does not apply — you can't even guarantee existence.
At the boundary case exactly (as with ), is uniqueness lost?
No. only defeats the naive sup-norm contraction; the factorial/Bielecki route still gives a unique solution. Uniqueness never depended on .
If is Lipschitz with , what does that mean?
forces to be independent of , i.e. . Then is the one and only solution — a pure integration, unconditionally unique.
Degenerate rectangle : is the theorem meaningful?
No usable interval — gives , so the "interval" is the single point . A rectangle needs (and ) to have any interior for the solution to live in.
What if is Lipschitz on but the solution reaches the edge before hits ?
That is exactly the scenario protects against: the theorem stops guaranteeing at . Beyond it you must re-apply the theorem from a new base point (continuation) if is still nice there.
Can a solution exist and be unique even when Picard–Lindelöf's hypotheses fail?
Yes. The theorem gives sufficient, not necessary, conditions — some non-Lipschitz problems still have unique solutions. Failing the hypotheses means "no guarantee," not "guaranteed to break."
Recall Quick self-test
The single fact that resolves most traps ::: depends on , not ; Lipschitz controls uniqueness/convergence, continuity controls existence and the bound .