Intuition The big picture (WHY this theorem exists)
When you write an ODE like y ′ = f ( x , y ) y' = f(x,y) y ′ = f ( x , y ) with a starting point y ( x 0 ) = y 0 y(x_0)=y_0 y ( x 0 ) = y 0 , you are assuming a solution exists and that it's the only one. But why should it? Picard–Lindelöf gives the price of admission : if f f f is "not too wild" near the starting point, then a solution exists and is unique on some small interval around x 0 x_0 x 0 .
The key idea: a solution to the IVP is the same as a fixed point of an integral operator. "Not too wild" (Lipschitz) makes that operator a contraction (provided the interval is short enough), and contractions have exactly one fixed point. That's the whole soul of the theorem.
Definition Initial Value Problem (IVP)
An IVP is the pair
y ′ ( x ) = f ( x , y ) , y ( x 0 ) = y 0 . y'(x) = f(x,y), \qquad y(x_0) = y_0. y ′ ( x ) = f ( x , y ) , y ( x 0 ) = y 0 .
We seek a differentiable function y ( x ) y(x) y ( x ) defined near x 0 x_0 x 0 satisfying both.
Definition Lipschitz condition in
y y y
f ( x , y ) f(x,y) f ( x , y ) is Lipschitz continuous in y y y on a region R R R if there is a constant L ≥ 0 L \ge 0 L ≥ 0 (the Lipschitz constant ) such that
∣ f ( x , y 1 ) − f ( x , y 2 ) ∣ ≤ L ∣ y 1 − y 2 ∣ for all ( x , y 1 ) , ( x , y 2 ) ∈ R . |f(x,y_1) - f(x,y_2)| \le L\,|y_1 - y_2| \quad \text{for all } (x,y_1),(x,y_2)\in R. ∣ f ( x , y 1 ) − f ( x , y 2 ) ∣ ≤ L ∣ y 1 − y 2 ∣ for all ( x , y 1 ) , ( x , y 2 ) ∈ R .
Meaning: as y y y changes, f f f can't change faster than linearly . The slope in the y y y -direction is bounded by L L L .
Note the two hypotheses play complementary roles: continuity bounds the slope (M M M ) and lets the iteration even start, while the Lipschitz condition is what makes the iteration converge and pins down a single solution. (Continuity alone still gives existence — the weaker Peano theorem — but it can lose uniqueness.)
Intuition Honest bookkeeping: what each hypothesis really does in the proof
A common textbook slogan says "continuity ⟹ existence, Lipschitz ⟹ uniqueness." That's a useful first picture, but in the Picard-iteration proof the Lipschitz estimate is used for both convergence (existence) and uniqueness. The clean split "continuity alone ⟹ existence" belongs to a different proof (Peano, via Arzelà–Ascoli), not to Picard iteration.
h h h is restricted
M M M bounds the slope. Starting at ( x 0 , y 0 ) (x_0,y_0) ( x 0 , y 0 ) , the solution can climb/fall at rate at most M M M . So after moving a horizontal distance Δ x \Delta x Δ x , it can move vertically at most M Δ x M\,\Delta x M Δ x . We must stay inside the box (height b b b ), otherwise f f f may not even be defined.
Solution is bounded by lines of slope ± M \pm M ± M :
∣ y ( x ) − y 0 ∣ ≤ M ∣ x − x 0 ∣ . |y(x)-y_0| \le M\,|x-x_0|. ∣ y ( x ) − y 0 ∣ ≤ M ∣ x − x 0 ∣.
To keep ∣ y − y 0 ∣ ≤ b |y-y_0|\le b ∣ y − y 0 ∣ ≤ b we need M ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ b M|x-x_0|\le b M ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ b , i.e. ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ b / M |x-x_0|\le b/M ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ b / M .
We also can't leave the box horizontally: ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ a |x-x_0|\le a ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ a .
Both must hold ⟹ ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ min ( a , b / M ) = h |x-x_0|\le \min(a,\,b/M)=h ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ min ( a , b / M ) = h . Why min? The tighter of the two constraints wins.
Intuition Turn the ODE into an integral equation
Differentiation is fragile; integration is robust. Integrate y ′ = f ( x , y ) y'=f(x,y) y ′ = f ( x , y ) from x 0 x_0 x 0 to x x x and use y ( x 0 ) = y 0 y(x_0)=y_0 y ( x 0 ) = y 0 :
y ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t ) ) d t . y(x) = y_0 + \int_{x_0}^{x} f(t,\,y(t))\,dt. y ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t )) d t .
A solution of the IVP ⟺ \iff ⟺ a function that is unchanged by the operator T [ y ] ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t ) ) d t T[y](x)=y_0+\int_{x_0}^x f(t,y(t))\,dt T [ y ] ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t )) d t . We want a fixed point T [ y ] = y T[y]=y T [ y ] = y .
Build a sequence of Picard iterates :
y 0 ( x ) = y 0 , y n + 1 ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y n ( t ) ) d t . y_0(x)=y_0,\qquad y_{n+1}(x) = y_0 + \int_{x_0}^{x} f\big(t,\,y_n(t)\big)\,dt. y 0 ( x ) = y 0 , y n + 1 ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y n ( t ) ) d t .
Step A — T T T keeps us inside the box. On ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h |x-x_0|\le h ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h , since ∣ f ∣ ≤ M |f|\le M ∣ f ∣ ≤ M ,
∣ y n + 1 ( x ) − y 0 ∣ ≤ ∫ x 0 x ∣ f ( t , y n ) ∣ d t ≤ M h ≤ M ⋅ b M = b , |y_{n+1}(x)-y_0| \le \int_{x_0}^x |f(t,y_n)|\,dt \le M\,h \le M\cdot\frac{b}{M}=b, ∣ y n + 1 ( x ) − y 0 ∣ ≤ ∫ x 0 x ∣ f ( t , y n ) ∣ d t ≤ M h ≤ M ⋅ M b = b ,
so every iterate stays in R R R and f f f is always evaluated where it is defined. (Here is where M M M and the choice h ≤ b / M h\le b/M h ≤ b / M are used.)
Step B — Why this converges (Lipschitz at work). Then
∣ y n + 1 ( x ) − y n ( x ) ∣ ≤ ∫ x 0 x ∣ f ( t , y n ) − f ( t , y n − 1 ) ∣ d t ≤ L ∫ x 0 x ∣ y n − y n − 1 ∣ d t . |y_{n+1}(x)-y_n(x)| \le \int_{x_0}^{x} |f(t,y_n)-f(t,y_{n-1})|\,dt \le L\int_{x_0}^x |y_n-y_{n-1}|\,dt. ∣ y n + 1 ( x ) − y n ( x ) ∣ ≤ ∫ x 0 x ∣ f ( t , y n ) − f ( t , y n − 1 ) ∣ d t ≤ L ∫ x 0 x ∣ y n − y n − 1 ∣ d t .
Iterating this gives the bound
∣ y n + 1 ( x ) − y n ( x ) ∣ ≤ M L n ∣ x − x 0 ∣ n + 1 ( n + 1 ) ! , |y_{n+1}(x)-y_n(x)| \le M\,\frac{L^{n}\,|x-x_0|^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}, ∣ y n + 1 ( x ) − y n ( x ) ∣ ≤ M ( n + 1 )! L n ∣ x − x 0 ∣ n + 1 ,
whose sum is M L ( e L h − 1 ) < ∞ \dfrac{M}{L}(e^{L h}-1)<\infty L M ( e L h − 1 ) < ∞ . So the iterates converge uniformly (Weierstrass M-test) to a limit y y y . This establishes existence , and note it already uses Lipschitz — Lipschitz is not "uniqueness only."
T T T is automatically a contraction, so we're done."
Why it feels right: the estimate sup ∣ T [ u ] − T [ v ] ∣ ≤ L h sup ∣ u − v ∣ \sup|T[u]-T[v]|\le L\,h\,\sup|u-v| sup ∣ T [ u ] − T [ v ] ∣ ≤ L h sup ∣ u − v ∣ looks like a contraction. The fix: T T T is a contraction in the sup-norm only when the constant K = L h < 1 K=L\,h<1 K = L h < 1 , i.e. only if you shrink the interval to h < 1 / L h<1/L h < 1/ L . Without h < 1 / L h<1/L h < 1/ L you cannot directly cite Banach. There are two standard repairs:
Shrink h h h : additionally require h ≤ α / L h\le \alpha/L h ≤ α / L for some α < 1 \alpha<1 α < 1 ; then K = L h < 1 K=L h<1 K = L h < 1 , T T T is a genuine contraction, Banach gives a unique fixed point on [ x 0 − h , x 0 + h ] [x_0-h,x_0+h] [ x 0 − h , x 0 + h ] , and you patch intervals together (continuation) to recover the full h = min ( a , b / M ) h=\min(a,b/M) h = min ( a , b / M ) .
Weighted norm / factorial bound (no shrinking): use the bound above (or the equivalent Bielecki weighted sup-norm ∥ u ∥ = sup e − 2 L ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ∣ u ( x ) ∣ \|u\|=\sup e^{-2L|x-x_0|}|u(x)| ∥ u ∥ = sup e − 2 L ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ∣ u ( x ) ∣ ), which makes T T T a contraction on the whole interval ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h |x-x_0|\le h ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h for any h h h . This is why our factorial estimate works even when L h ≥ 1 Lh\ge1 L h ≥ 1 .
Uniqueness. If y y y and y ~ \tilde y y ~ both solve the IVP, let ϕ ( x ) = ∣ y − y ~ ∣ \phi(x)=|y-\tilde y| ϕ ( x ) = ∣ y − y ~ ∣ . Then
ϕ ( x ) ≤ L ∫ x 0 x ϕ ( t ) d t , \phi(x)\le L\int_{x_0}^x \phi(t)\,dt, ϕ ( x ) ≤ L ∫ x 0 x ϕ ( t ) d t ,
and Grönwall's inequality forces ϕ ≡ 0 \phi\equiv 0 ϕ ≡ 0 . So Lipschitz delivers uniqueness too — cleanly, without needing L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1 .
Worked example 1. Compute
h h h for y ′ = x 2 + y 2 y'=x^2+y^2 y ′ = x 2 + y 2 , y ( 0 ) = 0 y(0)=0 y ( 0 ) = 0
Take rectangle a = 1 , b = 1 a=1,\ b=1 a = 1 , b = 1 so R = { ∣ x ∣ ≤ 1 , ∣ y ∣ ≤ 1 } R=\{|x|\le1,|y|\le1\} R = { ∣ x ∣ ≤ 1 , ∣ y ∣ ≤ 1 } .
Bound M M M : on R R R , ∣ f ∣ = ∣ x 2 + y 2 ∣ ≤ 1 + 1 = 2 = M |f|=|x^2+y^2|\le 1+1=2=M ∣ f ∣ = ∣ x 2 + y 2 ∣ ≤ 1 + 1 = 2 = M . Why? Both squares are at most 1 1 1 .
Lipschitz L L L : ∂ f / ∂ y = 2 y \partial f/\partial y = 2y ∂ f / ∂ y = 2 y , ∣ 2 y ∣ ≤ 2 |2y|\le 2 ∣2 y ∣ ≤ 2 on R R R , so L = 2 L=2 L = 2 . Why this gives Lipschitz? Bounded y y y -derivative on a convex set ⟹ Lipschitz with L = sup ∣ ∂ y f ∣ L=\sup|\partial_y f| L = sup ∣ ∂ y f ∣ (Mean Value Theorem).
Interval: h = min ( a , b / M ) = min ( 1 , 1 2 ) = 1 2 h=\min(a,b/M)=\min(1,\tfrac12)=\tfrac12 h = min ( a , b / M ) = min ( 1 , 2 1 ) = 2 1 .
Contraction check: L h = 2 ⋅ 1 2 = 1 Lh=2\cdot\tfrac12=1 L h = 2 ⋅ 2 1 = 1 , not < 1 <1 < 1 — so the naive Banach argument fails here. We rely on the factorial/Bielecki bound (Step B) instead. Either way, a unique solution exists for ∣ x ∣ ≤ 1 2 |x|\le \tfrac12 ∣ x ∣ ≤ 2 1 .
Worked example 2. Where can uniqueness FAIL:
y ′ = y 2 / 3 y'=y^{2/3} y ′ = y 2/3 , y ( 0 ) = 0 y(0)=0 y ( 0 ) = 0
f = y 2 / 3 f=y^{2/3} f = y 2/3 is continuous ⟹ Peano gives existence. ✔
But ∂ f / ∂ y = 2 3 y − 1 / 3 → ∞ \partial f/\partial y = \tfrac23 y^{-1/3}\to\infty ∂ f / ∂ y = 3 2 y − 1/3 → ∞ as y → 0 y\to 0 y → 0 . Not Lipschitz near y = 0 y=0 y = 0 .
Indeed two solutions exist: y ≡ 0 y\equiv 0 y ≡ 0 and y = ( x 3 ) 3 y=\left(\tfrac{x}{3}\right)^3 y = ( 3 x ) 3 . Why this matters: drop Lipschitz, lose uniqueness — exactly what the theorem warns.
Worked example 3. A clean linear case:
y ′ = y y'=y y ′ = y , y ( 0 ) = 1 y(0)=1 y ( 0 ) = 1
f = y f=y f = y : continuous everywhere, ∣ ∂ y f ∣ = 1 |\partial_y f|=1 ∣ ∂ y f ∣ = 1 so L = 1 L=1 L = 1 globally. Lipschitz holds on all of R 2 \mathbb{R}^2 R 2 .
Picard iterates: y 0 = 1 y_0=1 y 0 = 1 , y 1 = 1 + ∫ 0 x 1 d t = 1 + x y_1=1+\int_0^x 1\,dt=1+x y 1 = 1 + ∫ 0 x 1 d t = 1 + x , y 2 = 1 + ∫ 0 x ( 1 + t ) d t = 1 + x + x 2 2 y_2=1+\int_0^x(1+t)dt=1+x+\tfrac{x^2}{2} y 2 = 1 + ∫ 0 x ( 1 + t ) d t = 1 + x + 2 x 2 , …
Why beautiful: the iterates are exactly the partial sums of e x e^x e x , converging to the unique solution y = e x y=e^x y = e x . The proof's machinery literally builds the answer. (Note L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1 here needs h < 1 h<1 h < 1 , yet the iterates converge for all x x x — again thanks to the factorial bound, not Banach-on-a-tiny-interval.)
Common mistake "Continuity of
f f f alone gives uniqueness."
Why it feels right: in beginning calculus, continuous functions behave nicely, so you expect "one and only one." The fix: continuity gives only existence (Peano). Example 2 (y 2 / 3 y^{2/3} y 2/3 ) is continuous yet has many solutions. Uniqueness needs the Lipschitz condition — the extra control on how fast f f f moves with y y y .
Common mistake "The solution is guaranteed on the whole rectangle
∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ a |x-x_0|\le a ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ a ."
Why it feels right: you defined f f f on all of R R R , so surely the solution lives there too. The fix: the solution might escape the box before x x x reaches a a a . We must shrink to h = min ( a , b / M ) h=\min(a,b/M) h = min ( a , b / M ) so ∣ y − y 0 ∣ |y-y_0| ∣ y − y 0 ∣ stays ≤ b \le b ≤ b . The theorem is local .
Common mistake "Lipschitz in
x x x is what we need."
Why it feels right: x x x is the variable we move along. The fix: the operator iterates over y y y ; the contraction estimate uses ∣ f ( t , y 1 ) − f ( t , y 2 ) ∣ |f(t,y_1)-f(t,y_2)| ∣ f ( t , y 1 ) − f ( t , y 2 ) ∣ . So Lipschitz must be in y y y , not x x x . Continuity in x x x is enough.
L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1 is part of the theorem's hypotheses."
Why it feels right: the slick Banach proof needs K = L h < 1 K=Lh<1 K = L h < 1 . The fix: L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1 is a convenience of one proof route; you can always satisfy it by shrinking h h h and then continuing, or avoid it entirely with the weighted (Bielecki) norm. The stated theorem only needs continuity + Lipschitz; h = min ( a , b / M ) h=\min(a,b/M) h = min ( a , b / M ) is genuine.
Recall Feynman: explain to a 12-year-old
Imagine you're playing a video-game car that must start at one spot, and at every point a rule (an arrow) tells you which way to drive next. Existence says: a road actually starts from your spot — you can drive somewhere. Uniqueness says: there's only ONE road, you can't suddenly split into two cars. The catch: the arrows must not change too suddenly as you move up/down (that's the "Lipschitz" rule). If the arrows go crazy-steep (like the y 2 / 3 y^{2/3} y 2/3 road), two roads can sneak out of the same start — and you'd be confused which one you're on!
Mnemonic Remember the roles
"Continuous gets you Started, Lipschitz gets you Settled (converged + unique)."
And for the interval: "h h h is the m in, because the m ountain (M M M =max slope) and the b ox both box you in" → h = min ( a , b / M ) h=\min(a,b/M) h = min ( a , b / M ) . If you want the slick contraction, also shrink so L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1 .
Picard–Lindelöf needs which TWO hypotheses on f f f ? f f f continuous (so bounded by
M M M ) AND
f f f Lipschitz in
y y y on the rectangle.
In the Picard-iteration proof, what does continuity give and what does Lipschitz give? Continuity bounds
∣ f ∣ ≤ M |f|\le M ∣ f ∣ ≤ M (lets iteration start, controls the box); Lipschitz gives BOTH uniform convergence (existence) AND uniqueness.
Is "continuity ⟹ existence, Lipschitz ⟹ uniqueness" exactly true for Picard iteration? No — in Picard's proof Lipschitz is used for existence too. The clean continuity-only existence is a different proof (Peano).
State the Lipschitz condition in y y y . ∣ f ( x , y 1 ) − f ( x , y 2 ) ∣ ≤ L ∣ y 1 − y 2 ∣ |f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)|\le L|y_1-y_2| ∣ f ( x , y 1 ) − f ( x , y 2 ) ∣ ≤ L ∣ y 1 − y 2 ∣ for all
( x , y i ) (x,y_i) ( x , y i ) in the region.
On what interval is the solution guaranteed? ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h |x-x_0|\le h ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h with
h = min ( a , b / M ) h=\min(a,\,b/M) h = min ( a , b / M ) .
Why is the interval restricted to b / M b/M b / M ? Solution slope is bounded by
M M M , so
∣ y − y 0 ∣ ≤ M ∣ x − x 0 ∣ |y-y_0|\le M|x-x_0| ∣ y − y 0 ∣ ≤ M ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ; staying inside height
b b b forces
∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ b / M |x-x_0|\le b/M ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ b / M .
When is the operator T T T a contraction in the sup-norm? Only when
K = L h < 1 K=L\,h<1 K = L h < 1 ; otherwise shrink
h h h below
1 / L 1/L 1/ L , or use a weighted (Bielecki) norm to get contraction for any
h h h .
The IVP is equivalent to which fixed-point problem? y = T [ y ] y=T[y] y = T [ y ] where
T [ y ] ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t ) ) d t T[y](x)=y_0+\int_{x_0}^x f(t,y(t))\,dt T [ y ] ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t )) d t .
Define the Picard iterates. y 0 ( x ) = y 0 y_0(x)=y_0 y 0 ( x ) = y 0 ,
y n + 1 ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y n ( t ) ) d t y_{n+1}(x)=y_0+\int_{x_0}^x f(t,y_n(t))\,dt y n + 1 ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y n ( t )) d t .
Which inequality cleanly proves uniqueness without needing L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1 ? Grönwall:
ϕ ( x ) ≤ L ∫ x 0 x ϕ d t \phi(x)\le L\int_{x_0}^x\phi\,dt ϕ ( x ) ≤ L ∫ x 0 x ϕ d t with
ϕ = ∣ y − y ~ ∣ ≥ 0 \phi=|y-\tilde y|\ge0 ϕ = ∣ y − y ~ ∣ ≥ 0 forces
ϕ ≡ 0 \phi\equiv0 ϕ ≡ 0 .
Give an IVP that has existence but NOT uniqueness, and why. y ′ = y 2 / 3 , y ( 0 ) = 0 y'=y^{2/3},y(0)=0 y ′ = y 2/3 , y ( 0 ) = 0 ;
f f f continuous but not Lipschitz at
y = 0 y=0 y = 0 ; solutions
y ≡ 0 y\equiv0 y ≡ 0 and
y = ( x / 3 ) 3 y=(x/3)^3 y = ( x /3 ) 3 .
How do you usually verify the Lipschitz condition in practice? Show
∂ f / ∂ y \partial f/\partial y ∂ f / ∂ y is bounded on a convex region; then
L = sup ∣ ∂ y f ∣ L=\sup|\partial_y f| L = sup ∣ ∂ y f ∣ (via MVT).
For y ′ = x 2 + y 2 , y ( 0 ) = 0 y'=x^2+y^2,y(0)=0 y ′ = x 2 + y 2 , y ( 0 ) = 0 on ∣ x ∣ , ∣ y ∣ ≤ 1 |x|,|y|\le1 ∣ x ∣ , ∣ y ∣ ≤ 1 , find M M M , L L L , h h h , and is L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1 ? M = 2 M=2 M = 2 ,
L = 2 L=2 L = 2 ,
h = 1 / 2 h=1/2 h = 1/2 ;
L h = 1 Lh=1 L h = 1 , NOT
< 1 <1 < 1 — needs factorial/Bielecki argument.
Lipschitz condition — drives convergence AND uniqueness in Picard's proof
Banach fixed-point theorem (contraction mapping) — needs K = L h < 1 K=Lh<1 K = L h < 1 ; shrink interval or reweight
Bielecki weighted norm — makes T T T a contraction on the full interval for any h h h
Grönwall's inequality — clean uniqueness without L h < 1 Lh<1 L h < 1
Peano existence theorem — existence from continuity alone (different proof, no uniqueness)
Picard iteration (method of successive approximations)
Linear ODEs first order — global Lipschitz ⟹ global unique solutions
Maximal interval of existence — patching local solutions / continuation
alone gives existence via
Intuition Hinglish mein samjho
Dekho, jab bhi tum ek differential equation likhte ho jaise y ′ = f ( x , y ) y' = f(x,y) y ′ = f ( x , y ) ek starting point y ( x 0 ) = y 0 y(x_0)=y_0 y ( x 0 ) = y 0 ke saath, to tum chup-chaap maan lete ho ki iska solution exist karta hai aur sirf ek hi hai. Par yeh guarantee kaun deta hai? Wahi kaam Picard–Lindelöf theorem karta hai. Yeh kehta hai: agar f f f "zyada jungli nahi" hai ek chhote rectangle ke andar, to ek aur sirf ek solution milega, ek chhote interval ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h |x-x_0|\le h ∣ x − x 0 ∣ ≤ h par, jahan h = min ( a , b / M ) h=\min(a,b/M) h = min ( a , b / M ) .
Do conditions hain. Pehli: f f f continuous hona chahiye — isse ∣ f ∣ ≤ M |f|\le M ∣ f ∣ ≤ M bound milta hai, jo iteration ko shuru karne aur box ke andar rakhne mein kaam aata hai. Doosri: f f f ko Lipschitz in y y y hona chahiye, matlab ∣ f ( x , y 1 ) − f ( x , y 2 ) ∣ ≤ L ∣ y 1 − y 2 ∣ |f(x,y_1)-f(x,y_2)|\le L|y_1-y_2| ∣ f ( x , y 1 ) − f ( x , y 2 ) ∣ ≤ L ∣ y 1 − y 2 ∣ . Ek important baat jo log galat samajhte hain: textbook slogan "continuity se existence, Lipschitz se uniqueness" — par Picard iteration ke proof mein Lipschitz dono ke liye chahiye: iterates ka uniform convergence (existence) AUR uniqueness. Sirf-continuity-se-existence wala clean version alag proof hai (Peano).
Asli jadoo: ODE ko integral equation y ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t ) ) d t y(x)=y_0+\int_{x_0}^x f(t,y(t))\,dt y ( x ) = y 0 + ∫ x 0 x f ( t , y ( t )) d t mein badal dete hain, aur Picard iteration chalate hain. Ab ek subtle point: operator T T T ek contraction tabhi banta hai jab K = L ⋅ h < 1 K=L\cdot h<1 K = L ⋅ h < 1 . Agar L h ≥ 1 Lh\ge1 L h ≥ 1 (jaise Example 1 mein L h = 1 Lh=1 L h = 1 ), to seedha Banach theorem nahi laga sakte! Do ilaaj: (