The standard basis is {(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0),(0,0,1,0),(0,0,0,1)} — 4 vectors, independent and spanning. By the Dimension Theorem every basis has this same count, so dimR4=4.
Recall Solution
Basis {1,x,x2,x3} has 4 elements. So dimP3=4. In general dimPn=n+1 (one slot for each power x0,…,xn).
Recall Solution
No. A basis must be independent, and by the exchange lemma any independent set in R2 has at mostdimR2=2 vectors. Three vectors cannot be independent, so this is not a basis. (Indeed (2,3)=2(1,0)+3(0,1).)
No. Steinitz: independent ≤ spanning. Here spanning size is 5, so any independent set has ≤5 vectors. Seven exceeds 5 ⇒ they must be dependent.
Recall Solution
Set a(2,1)+b(1,3)=(0,0). Component-wise: 2a+b=0 and a+3b=0. From the first, b=−2a; substitute: a+3(−2a)=a−6a=−5a=0⇒a=0⇒b=0. Only the trivial solution ⇒ independent. Two independent vectors in a 2-dimensional space also span it, so it is a basis — confirming dimR2=2. See figure below.
Recall Solution
Spanning: we recover each standard basis vector: 1=1; x=(1+x)−1; x2=(1+x+x2)−(1+x). Since {1,x,x2} spans P2 and each is reachable, so does our set. Count: 3 elements =dimP2. A spanning set of size equal to the dimension is automatically a basis.
Solve v1=aw1+bw2: (2,3)=a(1,0)+b(1,1)=(a+b,b). So b=3, a+b=2⇒a=−1. Thus
v1=−1⋅w1+3⋅w2.
The coefficient on w1 is −1=0, so we may solve for w1:
w1=−11(v1−3w2)=−v1+3w2.
Hence w1 is expressible from {v1,w2}, so {v1,w2}={(2,3),(1,1)}still spansR2 (independence check: det2311=2−3=−1=0). One v swapped in, one w kicked out, spanning size preserved. See figure.
Recall Solution
Suppose everycj=0. Then vk+1=b1v1+⋯+bkvk — that is, vk+1 is a combination of the earlier v's. But L={v1,…,vm} is independent, meaning no v is a combination of the others. Contradiction. So some cj=0, guaranteeing a remainingw is present to kick out. If it failed, we'd run out of w's to swap and the size-n spanning invariant would collapse — the whole bound m≤n would be unproved. This is the single point where independence of L enters (see Linear Independence).
Recall Solution
Direction 1: B1 is independent, B2spans ⇒ lemma gives p≤q.
Direction 2: B2 is independent, B1spans ⇒ lemma gives q≤p.
Both hold because a basis is simultaneously independent and spanning, so each can play either role. From p≤q and q≤p we get p=q. That common value is dimV.
Solve the constraint: pick y,z free, then x=−y−z. So
(x,y,z)=(−y−z,y,z)=y(−1,1,0)+z(−1,0,1).
The two vectors (−1,1,0),(−1,0,1)spanW and are independent (neither is a scalar multiple of the other). So they form a basis and dimW=2. Intuition: one linear equation removes one degree of freedom from a 3-dimensional space, leaving 3−1=2. This is the Rank-Nullity Theorem in miniature: the map T(x,y,z)=x+y+z has 1-dimensional image and 2-dimensional kernel =W.
Recall Solution
We need total size =dimR3=3, so exactly one more vector — provided it's not a combination of the two. Try (0,0,1): is {(1,1,0),(1,0,1),(0,0,1)} independent? Compute the determinant
det110100011.
Expand along the bottom row: =1⋅det(1110)=1⋅(1⋅0−1⋅1)=−1=0. Independent ⇒ basis. Why exactly one? Any basis has cardinality 3; we already have 2 independent vectors, and by the exchange lemma we can always exchange to reach the full dimension without overshooting.
Recall Solution
Rank-Nullity Theorem: dim(kerT)+dim(im T)=dim(domain)=5. With dimker=2, dim(im T)=5−2=3. Since the codomain R3 has dimension 3 and the image is a 3-dimensional subspace of it, the image equals all of R3 (a subspace whose dimension equals the whole space is the whole space — that's basis-cardinality again). So yes, T is surjective.
Its basis is the empty set∅. The empty set is vacuously independent (there are no coefficients to constrain, so the only combination — the empty one — gives 0) and it spans{0} (the empty combination equals 0, the only vector present). Its cardinality is 0, so dim{0}=0. Note {0} itself is not a basis: any set containing 0 is dependent since 1⋅0=0 is a nontrivial relation.
Recall Solution
Take V=Rn spanned by the standard basis (size n). The same standard basis is an independent set of size n. So an independent set can reach the spanning-set size exactly; the bound m≤n is achieved with equality. Equality happens precisely when the independent set is also spanning — i.e. it's a basis.
Recall Solution
Let P be the space of all polynomials (any degree). The set {1,x,x2,x3,…} is independent and spanning but infinite — no finite set spans P (a finite set has a maximal degree d, so cannot reach xd+1). Here dimP=∞. The exchange lemma still applies relatively: for any finite spanning set of any subspaceW⊆P, independent sets in W are bounded by that spanning size. The lemma's engine never breaks; only the assumption "some finite spanning set exists" does.
Recall Solution
The change-of-basis matrix (see Coordinates and Change of Basis) has as many columns as the old basis size and as many rows as the new basis coordinate length — both equal the number of vectors in a basis. Because the Dimension Theorem forces both bases to have the same count dimV=3, the matrix is 3×3, hence square, hence potentially invertible (and it is invertible, since it maps one basis to another). Non-square would be impossible — that would mean two bases of different sizes, contradicting basis cardinality.
Recall One-line recap of the ladder
Recognition: dimension = size of a basis. Application: independent ≤ spanning. Analysis: one exchange preserves spanning because a nonzero coefficient lets us solve. Synthesis: combine with rank-nullity and extension. Mastery: empty-set basis of {0}, tightness, and the infinite case.