Intuition The one-line soul of the theorem
A complex number in polar form is really an arrow of length r r r pointing at angle θ \theta θ . Multiplying two such arrows multiplies their lengths and adds their angles . So raising an arrow to the power n n n means: multiply the length n n n times (i.e. r n r^n r n ) and add the angle to itself n n n times (i.e. n θ n\theta n θ ). De Moivre's theorem is just this "angles add when we multiply" idea, applied n n n times.
Definition De Moivre's Theorem
For any real θ \theta θ and integer n n n ,
( cos θ + i sin θ ) n = cos ( n θ ) + i sin ( n θ ) . (\cos\theta + i\sin\theta)^n = \cos(n\theta) + i\sin(n\theta). ( cos θ + i sin θ ) n = cos ( n θ ) + i sin ( n θ ) .
Writing cis θ ≡ cos θ + i sin θ \operatorname{cis}\theta \equiv \cos\theta + i\sin\theta cis θ ≡ cos θ + i sin θ , this is = = ( cis θ ) n = cis ( n θ ) = = ==(\operatorname{cis}\theta)^n = \operatorname{cis}(n\theta)== == ( cis θ ) n = cis ( n θ ) == .
More generally, for a modulus r > 0 r>0 r > 0 : ( r ( cos θ + i sin θ ) ) n = r n ( cos n θ + i sin n θ ) \big(r(\cos\theta+i\sin\theta)\big)^n = r^n\big(\cos n\theta + i\sin n\theta\big) ( r ( cos θ + i sin θ ) ) n = r n ( cos n θ + i sin n θ ) .
WHY does it look this way? Because cos θ + i sin θ = e i θ \cos\theta+i\sin\theta = e^{i\theta} cos θ + i sin θ = e i θ (Euler), so the LHS is ( e i θ ) n = e i n θ = cos n θ + i sin n θ (e^{i\theta})^n = e^{in\theta} = \cos n\theta + i\sin n\theta ( e i θ ) n = e in θ = cos n θ + i sin n θ . That's the "cheat" proof — but we should earn it from scratch.
Take z 1 = cis α z_1 = \operatorname{cis}\alpha z 1 = cis α and z 2 = cis β z_2 = \operatorname{cis}\beta z 2 = cis β . Multiply:
z 1 z 2 = ( cos α + i sin α ) ( cos β + i sin β ) . z_1z_2 = (\cos\alpha + i\sin\alpha)(\cos\beta + i\sin\beta). z 1 z 2 = ( cos α + i sin α ) ( cos β + i sin β ) .
Why expand? To collect real and imaginary parts.
= ( cos α cos β − sin α sin β ) + i ( sin α cos β + cos α sin β ) . = (\cos\alpha\cos\beta - \sin\alpha\sin\beta) + i(\sin\alpha\cos\beta + \cos\alpha\sin\beta). = ( cos α cos β − sin α sin β ) + i ( sin α cos β + cos α sin β ) .
Why does this simplify? Those two brackets are exactly the angle-addition formulas :
= cos ( α + β ) + i sin ( α + β ) = cis ( α + β ) . = \cos(\alpha+\beta) + i\sin(\alpha+\beta) = \operatorname{cis}(\alpha+\beta). = cos ( α + β ) + i sin ( α + β ) = cis ( α + β ) .
So multiplying cis's adds the angles . This single fact powers everything.
Base case n = 1 n=1 n = 1 : ( cis θ ) 1 = cis θ = cis ( 1 ⋅ θ ) (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^1 = \operatorname{cis}\theta = \operatorname{cis}(1\cdot\theta) ( cis θ ) 1 = cis θ = cis ( 1 ⋅ θ ) . ✔
Inductive step: assume ( cis θ ) k = cis ( k θ ) (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^k = \operatorname{cis}(k\theta) ( cis θ ) k = cis ( k θ ) . Then
( cis θ ) k + 1 = ( cis θ ) k ⋅ cis θ = cis ( k θ ) ⋅ cis θ . (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^{k+1} = (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^k \cdot \operatorname{cis}\theta = \operatorname{cis}(k\theta)\cdot\operatorname{cis}\theta. ( cis θ ) k + 1 = ( cis θ ) k ⋅ cis θ = cis ( k θ ) ⋅ cis θ .
Why can I use Step 0 now? Because we're multiplying two cis's — so angles add:
= cis ( k θ + θ ) = cis ( ( k + 1 ) θ ) . ✓ = \operatorname{cis}(k\theta + \theta) = \operatorname{cis}\big((k+1)\theta\big). \ \checkmark = cis ( k θ + θ ) = cis ( ( k + 1 ) θ ) . ✓
By induction it holds for all positive integers.
( cis θ ) 0 = 1 = cos 0 + i sin 0 = cis ( 0 ⋅ θ ) (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^0 = 1 = \cos 0 + i\sin 0 = \operatorname{cis}(0\cdot\theta) ( cis θ ) 0 = 1 = cos 0 + i sin 0 = cis ( 0 ⋅ θ ) . ✔
Let n = − m n=-m n = − m with m > 0 m>0 m > 0 . Then ( cis θ ) − m = 1 ( cis θ ) m = 1 cis ( m θ ) (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^{-m} = \dfrac{1}{(\operatorname{cis}\theta)^m} = \dfrac{1}{\operatorname{cis}(m\theta)} ( cis θ ) − m = ( cis θ ) m 1 = cis ( m θ ) 1 .
Why is the reciprocal easy? Because ∣ cis ( m θ ) ∣ = 1 |\operatorname{cis}(m\theta)| = 1 ∣ cis ( m θ ) ∣ = 1 , so its inverse is its conjugate:
1 cos m θ + i sin m θ = cos m θ − i sin m θ cos 2 m θ + sin 2 m θ = cos m θ − i sin m θ = cis ( − m θ ) . \frac{1}{\cos m\theta + i\sin m\theta} = \frac{\cos m\theta - i\sin m\theta}{\cos^2 m\theta + \sin^2 m\theta} = \cos m\theta - i\sin m\theta = \operatorname{cis}(-m\theta). c o s m θ + i s i n m θ 1 = c o s 2 m θ + s i n 2 m θ c o s m θ − i s i n m θ = cos m θ − i sin m θ = cis ( − m θ ) .
So ( cis θ ) − m = cis ( − m θ ) = cis ( n θ ) (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^{-m} = \operatorname{cis}(-m\theta) = \operatorname{cis}(n\theta) ( cis θ ) − m = cis ( − m θ ) = cis ( n θ ) . ✔ Theorem holds for all integers .
Common mistake "It works for any real power too, one value."
Why the wrong idea feels right: e i θ e^{i\theta} e i θ suggests ( cis θ ) p / q = cis ( p θ / q ) (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^{p/q} = \operatorname{cis}(p\theta/q) ( cis θ ) p / q = cis ( pθ / q ) cleanly. The fix: for a fractional exponent the LHS is multivalued — ( cis θ ) 1 / q (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^{1/q} ( cis θ ) 1/ q has q q q different roots. De Moivre gives one value; you must add 2 π k 2\pi k 2 π k to θ \theta θ first to reach the others (see roots below). The clean single-valued statement is only guaranteed for integer n n n .
To solve z n = w z^n = w z n = w where w = r cis ϕ w = r\operatorname{cis}\phi w = r cis ϕ : write z = ρ cis ψ z = \rho\operatorname{cis}\psi z = ρ cis ψ . Then z n = ρ n cis ( n ψ ) = r cis ϕ z^n = \rho^n\operatorname{cis}(n\psi) = r\operatorname{cis}\phi z n = ρ n cis ( n ψ ) = r cis ϕ .
Why add 2 π k 2\pi k 2 π k ? Because angles ϕ \phi ϕ and ϕ + 2 π k \phi+2\pi k ϕ + 2 π k label the same w w w . Matching:
ρ = r 1 / n , n ψ = ϕ + 2 π k ⟹ ψ = ϕ + 2 π k n . \rho = r^{1/n}, \qquad n\psi = \phi + 2\pi k \implies \psi = \frac{\phi + 2\pi k}{n}. ρ = r 1/ n , n ψ = ϕ + 2 π k ⟹ ψ = n ϕ + 2 π k .
z k = r 1 / n cis ( ϕ + 2 π k n ) , k = 0 , 1 , … , n − 1. \boxed{\,z_k = r^{1/n}\operatorname{cis}\!\left(\frac{\phi + 2\pi k}{n}\right),\quad k = 0,1,\dots,n-1.\,} z k = r 1/ n cis ( n ϕ + 2 π k ) , k = 0 , 1 , … , n − 1.
These are n n n points equally spaced by 2 π / n 2\pi/n 2 π / n on a circle of radius r 1 / n r^{1/n} r 1/ n .
Expand ( cos θ + i sin θ ) n (\cos\theta + i\sin\theta)^n ( cos θ + i sin θ ) n with the binomial theorem, then equate real/imaginary parts to cos n θ \cos n\theta cos n θ and sin n θ \sin n\theta sin n θ .
Worked example 1 — Compute
( 1 + i ) 8 (1+i)^{8} ( 1 + i ) 8
Step 1 — polar form. ∣ 1 + i ∣ = 2 |1+i| = \sqrt2 ∣1 + i ∣ = 2 , angle = π / 4 =\pi/4 = π /4 . Why? Real=Imag=1 puts it on the 45 ° 45° 45° line. So 1 + i = 2 cis ( π / 4 ) 1+i = \sqrt2\,\operatorname{cis}(\pi/4) 1 + i = 2 cis ( π /4 ) .
Step 2 — apply De Moivre. ( 1 + i ) 8 = ( 2 ) 8 cis ( 8 ⋅ π / 4 ) = 16 cis ( 2 π ) (1+i)^8 = (\sqrt2)^8\operatorname{cis}(8\cdot\pi/4) = 16\,\operatorname{cis}(2\pi) ( 1 + i ) 8 = ( 2 ) 8 cis ( 8 ⋅ π /4 ) = 16 cis ( 2 π ) . Why ( 2 ) 8 (\sqrt2)^8 ( 2 ) 8 ? Modulus is raised to the same power.
Step 3. cis ( 2 π ) = 1 \operatorname{cis}(2\pi)=1 cis ( 2 π ) = 1 , so answer = 16 =\mathbf{16} = 16 .
Worked example 2 — Cube roots of unity (
z 3 = 1 z^3 = 1 z 3 = 1 )
Here w = 1 = 1 cis 0 w=1 = 1\operatorname{cis}0 w = 1 = 1 cis 0 , n = 3 n=3 n = 3 , r = 1 r=1 r = 1 , ϕ = 0 \phi=0 ϕ = 0 .
z k = cis ( 2 π k 3 ) z_k = \operatorname{cis}\!\big(\tfrac{2\pi k}{3}\big) z k = cis ( 3 2 π k ) , k = 0 , 1 , 2 k=0,1,2 k = 0 , 1 , 2 .
k = 0 k=0 k = 0 : cis 0 = 1 \operatorname{cis}0 = 1 cis 0 = 1 .
k = 1 k=1 k = 1 : cis ( 2 π / 3 ) = − 1 2 + i 3 2 \operatorname{cis}(2\pi/3) = -\tfrac12 + i\tfrac{\sqrt3}{2} cis ( 2 π /3 ) = − 2 1 + i 2 3 .
k = 2 k=2 k = 2 : cis ( 4 π / 3 ) = − 1 2 − i 3 2 \operatorname{cis}(4\pi/3) = -\tfrac12 - i\tfrac{\sqrt3}{2} cis ( 4 π /3 ) = − 2 1 − i 2 3 .
Why three, equally spaced? 2 π / 3 2\pi/3 2 π /3 apart, forming an equilateral triangle on the unit circle. Their sum is 0 0 0 (symmetry).
Worked example 3 — Derive
cos 3 θ \cos 3\theta cos 3 θ and sin 3 θ \sin 3\theta sin 3 θ
Expand ( cos θ + i sin θ ) 3 (\cos\theta + i\sin\theta)^3 ( cos θ + i sin θ ) 3 using ( a + b ) 3 = a 3 + 3 a 2 b + 3 a b 2 + b 3 (a+b)^3 = a^3+3a^2b+3ab^2+b^3 ( a + b ) 3 = a 3 + 3 a 2 b + 3 a b 2 + b 3 with a = cos θ , b = i sin θ a=\cos\theta,\ b=i\sin\theta a = cos θ , b = i sin θ :
cos 3 θ + 3 cos 2 θ ( i sin θ ) + 3 cos θ ( i sin θ ) 2 + ( i sin θ ) 3 . \cos^3\theta + 3\cos^2\theta(i\sin\theta) + 3\cos\theta(i\sin\theta)^2 + (i\sin\theta)^3. cos 3 θ + 3 cos 2 θ ( i sin θ ) + 3 cos θ ( i sin θ ) 2 + ( i sin θ ) 3 .
Using i 2 = − 1 , i 3 = − i i^2=-1,\ i^3=-i i 2 = − 1 , i 3 = − i :
= ( cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ sin 2 θ ) + i ( 3 cos 2 θ sin θ − sin 3 θ ) . = (\cos^3\theta - 3\cos\theta\sin^2\theta) + i(3\cos^2\theta\sin\theta - \sin^3\theta). = ( cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ sin 2 θ ) + i ( 3 cos 2 θ sin θ − sin 3 θ ) .
By De Moivre this equals cos 3 θ + i sin 3 θ \cos 3\theta + i\sin 3\theta cos 3 θ + i sin 3 θ . Why equate parts? Two complex numbers are equal iff real and imaginary parts match:
cos 3 θ = cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ sin 2 θ = 4 cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ , \cos 3\theta = \cos^3\theta - 3\cos\theta\sin^2\theta = 4\cos^3\theta - 3\cos\theta, cos 3 θ = cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ sin 2 θ = 4 cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ ,
sin 3 θ = 3 cos 2 θ sin θ − sin 3 θ = 3 sin θ − 4 sin 3 θ . \sin 3\theta = 3\cos^2\theta\sin\theta - \sin^3\theta = 3\sin\theta - 4\sin^3\theta. sin 3 θ = 3 cos 2 θ sin θ − sin 3 θ = 3 sin θ − 4 sin 3 θ .
Recall Feynman: explain to a 12-year-old
Imagine a clock hand of some length. Every time you "multiply" the hand by itself, you spin it by its own angle and stretch it. Do that n n n times and the hand has spun n n n times its angle and stretched n n n -fold. That's the whole theorem: spinning adds up, stretching multiplies up . Going backwards (finding roots) means: to spin somewhere in n n n steps, cut the angle into n n n equal slices — and since a full turn (360 ° 360° 360° ) lands you back home, there are exactly n n n starting spots evenly around a circle.
Powers: angles ADD, moduli MULTIPLY. "
Or: "cis to the n = cis of n-times." For roots: "r 1 / n r^{1/n} r 1/ n , then sprinkle n n n dots 2 π / n 2\pi/n 2 π / n apart."
State De Moivre for integer n n n .
Which trig fact makes the induction step work?
Why do n n n -th roots come in n n n pieces?
De Moivre's theorem statement (integer n n n ) ( cos θ + i sin θ ) n = cos n θ + i sin n θ (\cos\theta+i\sin\theta)^n = \cos n\theta + i\sin n\theta ( cos θ + i sin θ ) n = cos n θ + i sin n θ .
Key identity used in the proof's multiplication step The angle-addition formulas:
cis α ⋅ cis β = cis ( α + β ) \operatorname{cis}\alpha\cdot\operatorname{cis}\beta=\operatorname{cis}(\alpha+\beta) cis α ⋅ cis β = cis ( α + β ) .
How do modulus and argument behave under the n n n -th power? Modulus
→ r n \to r^n → r n (multiplies), argument
→ n θ \to n\theta → n θ (adds).
Formula for the n n n n n n -th roots of r cis ϕ r\operatorname{cis}\phi r cis ϕ z k = r 1 / n cis ( ϕ + 2 π k n ) , k = 0 , … , n − 1 z_k = r^{1/n}\operatorname{cis}\!\big(\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\big),\ k=0,\dots,n-1 z k = r 1/ n cis ( n ϕ + 2 π k ) , k = 0 , … , n − 1 .
Why exactly n n n roots? Adding
2 π k 2\pi k 2 π k to the argument gives distinct angles only for
k = 0 , … , n − 1 k=0,\dots,n-1 k = 0 , … , n − 1 (then they repeat).
cos 3 θ \cos 3\theta cos 3 θ in terms of cos θ \cos\theta cos θ 4 cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ 4\cos^3\theta - 3\cos\theta 4 cos 3 θ − 3 cos θ .
sin 3 θ \sin 3\theta sin 3 θ in terms of sin θ \sin\theta sin θ 3 sin θ − 4 sin 3 θ 3\sin\theta - 4\sin^3\theta 3 sin θ − 4 sin 3 θ .
How to prove De Moivre for negative n n n ? Take reciprocal; since
∣ cis ( m θ ) ∣ = 1 |\operatorname{cis}(m\theta)|=1 ∣ cis ( m θ ) ∣ = 1 , its inverse is its conjugate
cis ( − m θ ) \operatorname{cis}(-m\theta) cis ( − m θ ) .
Value of ( 1 + i ) 8 (1+i)^8 ( 1 + i ) 8 Sum of the three cube roots of unity
Polar form of complex numbers — the r cis θ r\operatorname{cis}\theta r cis θ representation this relies on.
Euler's formula — e i θ = cis θ e^{i\theta}=\operatorname{cis}\theta e i θ = cis θ makes De Moivre a one-liner.
Roots of unity — the cleanest application (equally spaced points).
Binomial theorem — used to extract multiple-angle identities.
Argand diagram — geometric picture of spin-and-stretch.
Trigonometric identities — angle-addition formulas power the proof.
Polar form arrow r at angle theta
cis theta equals e to i theta
Multiply lengths add angles
cis alpha times cis beta equals cis alpha plus beta
r cis theta to n equals r to n cis n theta
Intuition Hinglish mein samjho
Dekho, complex number ko ek arrow samjho jo origin se nikalta hai — uski length hai modulus r r r , aur uska angle hai argument θ \theta θ . De Moivre's theorem ka core idea bas itna hai: jab tum do complex numbers ko multiply karte ho, toh unki lengths multiply hoti hain aur angles add hote hain. Isliye jab kisi number ko power n n n tak le jaate ho, toh length ban jaati hai r n r^n r n aur angle ban jaata hai n θ n\theta n θ . Yani ( cis θ ) n = cis ( n θ ) (\operatorname{cis}\theta)^n = \operatorname{cis}(n\theta) ( cis θ ) n = cis ( n θ ) .
Proof bhi seedha hai. Pehle prove karo ki cis α × cis β = cis ( α + β ) \operatorname{cis}\alpha \times \operatorname{cis}\beta = \operatorname{cis}(\alpha+\beta) cis α × cis β = cis ( α + β ) — yeh sirf cos ( α + β ) \cos(\alpha+\beta) cos ( α + β ) aur sin ( α + β ) \sin(\alpha+\beta) sin ( α + β ) wale trig formulas hain. Uske baad induction lagao: agar n = k n=k n = k ke liye sach hai, toh ek aur cis θ \operatorname{cis}\theta cis θ multiply karke angle mein θ \theta θ add ho jaata hai, so n = k + 1 n=k+1 n = k + 1 bhi ho gaya. Negative power ke liye reciprocal lo — modulus 1 hai isliye inverse conjugate ke barabar hota hai.
Application sabse mazedaar hai: roots nikalna . z n = w z^n = w z n = w solve karna ho toh length ka n n n -th root lo aur angle ko n n n se divide karo — lekin yaad rakho ek full circle 2 π 2\pi 2 π ghum ke wahi point aata hai, isliye angle mein 2 π k 2\pi k 2 π k add karke n n n alag-alag roots milte hain, jo circle par barabar-barabar (equally spaced) baithe hote hain. Isi se cube roots of unity aur cos 3 θ \cos 3\theta cos 3 θ , sin 3 θ \sin 3\theta sin 3 θ jaisi identities aasani se nikal aati hain. Exam mein yeh theorem gold hai — powers aur roots dono ek line mein ho jaate hain.