This is the worked-example workshop for the parent note . There we derived the transmission coefficient. Here we use it on every kind of input the formula can be handed — thin barriers, thick barriers, heavy particles, the moment E creeps up toward V 0 , the degenerate width-zero case, and a couple of exam-style twists.
Before we start, let us re-anchor the three symbols so you never have to scroll back. Picture a particle (a little wave) coming in from the left, hitting a wall of height V 0 and width L .
Definition The three quantities, in plain words
E = the particle's total energy (how fast it is moving, in energy units). It is fixed and conserved — the particle keeps this energy the whole time.
V 0 = the height of the wall in the same energy units. Tunneling is the regime V 0 > E (the wall is taller than the particle can climb).
L = the width (thickness) of the wall.
κ (Greek "kappa") = ℏ 2 m ( V 0 − E ) = the decay rate of the wave inside the wall. Big κ means the wave dies fast, so almost nothing gets through.
The two formulas we will lean on the entire page:
The wall picture we keep referring to:
Every problem this topic throws at you lands in exactly one of these cells. The last column names the example that covers it.
#
Case class
What is special about it
Covered by
A
Thin barrier , κ L modest
Approximation risky — check against exact
Ex 1
B
Thick barrier , κ L ≫ 1
Approximation excellent; exponential rules
Ex 2
C
Width scaling (L → 2 L , etc.)
Exponential sensitivity to L
Ex 3
D
E → V 0 − (energy near top)
κ → 0 : degenerate/limiting; T → max
Ex 4
E
L → 0 (no barrier)
Degenerate: must recover T = 1
Ex 4
F
Heavy particle (m large)
κ ∝ m : tunneling collapses
Ex 5
G
Height scaling (V 0 up)
Isolate the V 0 dependence
Ex 6
H
Real-world word problem (STM)
Translate physics → tiny Δ L , big Δ current
Ex 7
I
Exam twist : E > V 0
Formula breaks; κ imaginary → resonance
Ex 8
Prerequisites if any symbol feels new: Schrödinger Equation , Wavefunction and Boundary Conditions , de Broglie Wavelength . Applications live at Alpha Decay and Scanning Tunneling Microscope .
Worked example Electron, thin wall
Electron (m = 9.11 × 1 0 − 31 kg), E = 1 eV, V 0 = 2 eV, L = 0.5 nm. Find T both ways and compare.
Forecast: κ L will be a few — not huge. Guess: does the simple G e − 2 κ L overshoot or undershoot the exact answer? Write your guess before reading on.
Step 1 — Convert energies to joules. V 0 − E = 1 eV = 1.602 × 1 0 − 19 J.
Why this step? κ 's formula uses SI units; eV would give nonsense metres.
Step 2 — Compute κ .
κ = 1.055 × 1 0 − 34 2 ( 9.11 × 1 0 − 31 ) ( 1.602 × 1 0 − 19 ) ≈ 5.12 × 1 0 9 m − 1
Why this step? κ is the master quantity — the decay rate that sets everything.
Step 3 — Exponent 2 κ L . 2 ( 5.12 × 1 0 9 ) ( 0.5 × 1 0 − 9 ) = 5.12 .
Why this step? Both formulas need κ L = 2.56 ; the probability rides on e − 2 κ L .
Step 4 — Approximate T . G = 2 2 16 ( 1 ) ( 1 ) = 4 , so T ≈ 4 e − 5.12 ≈ 4 ( 0.00598 ) ≈ 0.0239 , i.e. 2.4% .
Why this step? This is the number a fast estimate gives.
Step 5 — Exact T . sinh ( 2.56 ) = 2 1 ( e 2.56 − e − 2.56 ) ≈ 6.44 , so
T = [ 1 + 4 ( 1 ) ( 1 ) 2 2 ( 6.44 ) 2 ] − 1 = [ 1 + 41.5 ] − 1 ≈ 0.0235.
Why this step? κ L = 2.56 is "medium", so we must check whether dropping the "+ 1 " was legal.
Verify: approximate 0.0239 vs exact 0.0235 — agree to within ∼ 2% . So even here the approximation is fine, and it slightly overshoots (because it threw away the "+ 1 " which only ever reduces T ). Units: κ has m − 1 , L has m, product dimensionless ✓. T dimensionless and < 1 ✓.
Worked example Same wall, tripled width
Electron as above but L = 1.5 nm. Find T .
Forecast: L tripled from Ex 1. Does T drop by a factor of 3? Guess an order of magnitude.
Step 1 — Reuse κ = 5.12 × 1 0 9 m − 1 .
Why this step? κ depends only on m , V 0 , E — none changed, so no recompute.
Step 2 — Exponent. 2 κ L = 2 ( 5.12 × 1 0 9 ) ( 1.5 × 1 0 − 9 ) = 15.36 .
Why this step? Now κ L = 7.68 ≫ 1 → deep in approximation territory.
Step 3 — Approximate T . G = 4 still, so T ≈ 4 e − 15.36 ≈ 4 ( 2.14 × 1 0 − 7 ) ≈ 8.6 × 1 0 − 7 .
Why this step? With κ L this large the "+ 1 " is utterly negligible, so the approximation is the exact answer to many digits.
Verify: Not "3× smaller" but ~28000× smaller than Ex 1's 0.024 . That is the whole lesson: T falls exponentially , not linearly, with L . Check: 0.024/8.6 × 1 0 − 7 ≈ 2.8 × 1 0 4 , and e 15.36 − 5.12 = e 10.24 ≈ 2.8 × 1 0 4 ✓ (the ratio is purely the exponential difference).
Worked example The STM sensitivity number
Take Ex 1's setup (2 κ L = 5.12 at L = 0.5 nm). By what factor does T change if L doubles to 1.0 nm?
Forecast: Guess the factor. Most people say "2×". Watch.
Step 1 — New exponent. L → 1.0 nm gives 2 κ L = 10.24 .
Why this step? Only the exponent changes; G is unchanged since E , V 0 fixed.
Step 2 — Ratio of the two T values.
T ( 0.5 ) T ( 1.0 ) = G e − 5.12 G e − 10.24 = e − 5.12 ≈ 0.00598.
Why this step? Dividing kills G entirely — the sensitivity is pure exponential , independent of the prefactor.
Step 3 — Invert. 1/0.00598 ≈ 167 .
Why this step? We want "how many times smaller", so we invert.
Verify: Doubling the width suppresses T by ~167× , not 2×. This is exactly why a Scanning Tunneling Microscope resolves single atoms: a height bump of 0.1 nm changes the tunneling current by an order of magnitude. Units cancel in a ratio ✓.
Now the delicate cases the naive user forgets: what happens as the barrier disappears? There are two ways it can disappear — the wall gets thin (L → 0 ) or the particle's energy climbs to the wall top (E → V 0 ). The approximation G e − 2 κ L is illegal in both (it needs κ L ≫ 1 ), so we must use the exact sinh form. This is where sinh earns its place.
sinh , and not something else, sits in the exact formula
sinh ( u ) = 2 1 ( e u − e − u ) is the natural partner of the two real exponentials e + κ x and e − κ x living inside the barrier (from the parent note). Matching a growing and a decaying exponential at both walls forces their combination into a sinh . Crucially, for small u , sinh ( u ) ≈ u — that tiny-u behaviour is exactly what saves us in both limits below.
Worked example Cell E — vanishing width
L → 0
Take the exact formula and let L → 0 . What is T ?
Forecast: No wall at all → the particle sails through. Guess T = ?
Step 1 — Small-argument sinh . As L → 0 , κ L → 0 , and sinh ( κ L ) → κ L → 0 .
Why this step? sinh ( 0 ) = 0 , so the whole correction term collapses.
Step 2 — Plug in. T = [ 1 + 4 E ( V 0 − E ) V 0 2 ⋅ 0 ] − 1 = [ 1 ] − 1 = 1 .
Why this step? A zero-width wall transmits everything — the sanity check every derivation must pass.
Verify: T = 1 means 100% transmission with no barrier. Perfect. If your algebra had given anything other than 1 here, it would be wrong.
Worked example Cell D — energy creeps to the top,
E → V 0 −
Fix L and let E approach V 0 from below. What does T approach? (Use V 0 = 2 eV, L = 0.5 nm as before.)
Forecast: The wall is barely too tall now. Guess: does T → 1 , or to some number below 1?
Step 1 — Watch κ . κ = 2 m ( V 0 − E ) /ℏ → 0 as E → V 0 .
Why this step? The height the wave must fight, V 0 − E , shrinks to zero — the decay rate vanishes.
Step 2 — Small-κ L form of the correction. With κ L tiny, sinh ( κ L ) ≈ κ L , so sinh 2 ( κ L ) ≈ κ 2 L 2 = ℏ 2 2 m ( V 0 − E ) L 2 .
Why this step? We must resolve a "0/0 " — the numerator has ( V 0 − E ) from sinh 2 and the denominator has ( V 0 − E ) too, so they cancel cleanly.
Step 3 — Cancel.
4 E ( V 0 − E ) V 0 2 s i n h 2 ( κ L ) ≈ 4 E ( V 0 − E ) V 0 2 ⋅ ℏ 2 2 m ( V 0 − E ) L 2 = 2 E ℏ 2 V 0 2 m L 2 .
As E → V 0 : → 2 ℏ 2 V 0 m L 2 .
Why this step? This is the finite leftover after the ( V 0 − E ) 's cancel — T does not blow up or vanish.
Step 4 — Number. 2 ℏ 2 V 0 m L 2 with V 0 = 2 × 1.602 × 1 0 − 19 J, L = 0.5 × 1 0 − 9 m:
= 2 ( 1.055 × 1 0 − 34 ) 2 ( 3.204 × 1 0 − 19 ) ( 9.11 × 1 0 − 31 ) ( 0.5 × 1 0 − 9 ) 2 ≈ 3.28.
So T → [ 1 + 3.28 ] − 1 ≈ 0.234 , i.e. 23% .
Why this step? Even with the wall barely taller than the particle, transmission is only ~23% for this width — a striking, non-obvious limiting value.
Verify: T stays finite and < 1 as E → V 0 , as it must (a wall of finite width still reflects some wave even when the particle nearly clears it). No division-by-zero blowup — the cancellation in Step 2 was the whole point.
Worked example Proton instead of electron
Repeat Ex 1's numbers (E = 1 eV, V 0 = 2 eV, L = 0.5 nm) but with a proton, m p = 1836 m e .
Forecast: Heavier particle. Guess: does T drop by a factor of 1836, or far more?
Step 1 — How κ scales. κ ∝ m , so κ p = 1836 κ e ≈ 42.85 κ e .
Why this step? Mass enters only through m ; scaling beats recomputing from scratch.
Step 2 — New exponent. From Ex 1, electron's 2 κ e L = 5.12 . So 2 κ p L = 42.85 × 5.12 ≈ 219 .
Why this step? The exponent, not the prefactor, is where mass detonates.
Step 3 — Estimate T . T ≈ 4 e − 219 ≈ 4 × ( 2 × 1 0 − 96 ) ≈ 1 0 − 95 .
Why this step? This is effectively zero — a proton simply does not tunnel this wall.
Verify: e − 219 is unimaginably small. This is why macroscopic objects never tunnel : mass sits under a square root inside an exponential, so even 1836× the mass (still tiny!) sends T from 2% to 1 0 − 95 . Units: m scaling is dimensionless in the ratio ✓.
Worked example Taller wall
Electron, E = 1 eV, L = 0.5 nm, but raise V 0 from 2 eV to 5 eV. Find T and compare to Ex 1.
Forecast: Wall more than doubled in height. Guess the order of magnitude of T .
Step 1 — New κ . V 0 − E = 4 eV = 6.408 × 1 0 − 19 J.
κ = 1.055 × 1 0 − 34 2 ( 9.11 × 1 0 − 31 ) ( 6.408 × 1 0 − 19 ) ≈ 1.024 × 1 0 10 m − 1 .
Why this step? Both G and the exponent depend on V 0 ; κ changes because V 0 − E grew.
Step 2 — Exponent. 2 κ L = 2 ( 1.024 × 1 0 10 ) ( 0.5 × 1 0 − 9 ) = 10.24 .
Why this step? Note it doubled from Ex 1's 5.12 because V 0 − E quadrupled and κ ∝ V 0 − E .
Step 3 — Prefactor. G = 5 2 16 ( 1 ) ( 4 ) = 25 64 = 2.56 .
Why this step? G shrank (from 4) because the V 0 2 in the denominator grew faster than the numerator.
Step 4 — Combine. T ≈ 2.56 e − 10.24 ≈ 2.56 ( 3.58 × 1 0 − 5 ) ≈ 9.2 × 1 0 − 5 , i.e. 0.009% .
Why this step? Delivers the final number.
Verify: From 2.4% (Ex 1) down to 0.009% — a ~260× drop — from raising the wall alone. Confirms the parent-note warning that "T depends only on width" is wrong: height matters just as strongly through κ .
Worked example Reading an atom with current
In a Scanning Tunneling Microscope the tunneling current I ∝ T ≈ G e − 2 κ L , where L is the tip–surface gap. For an electron with V 0 − E ≈ 4 eV (typical work-function gap), by what factor does the current change when the tip moves 0.1 nm closer ?
Forecast: 0.1 nm is a fraction of an atom's size. Guess: does current change by a few percent, or a factor of several?
Step 1 — Compute κ . With V 0 − E = 4 eV, from Ex 6 κ ≈ 1.024 × 1 0 10 m − 1 .
Why this step? κ sets how sharply current responds to gap changes.
Step 2 — Current ratio for a gap change Δ L .
I ( L ) I ( L − Δ L ) = e − 2 κ ( L − Δ L ) / e − 2 κ L = e + 2 κ Δ L .
Why this step? Moving closer by Δ L shortens the tunnel path; the prefactor G (same E , V 0 ) cancels.
Step 3 — Number. 2 κ Δ L = 2 ( 1.024 × 1 0 10 ) ( 0.1 × 1 0 − 9 ) = 2.048 , so factor = e 2.048 ≈ 7.75 .
Why this step? Turns the physics into a measurable multiplier.
Verify: A mere 0.1 nm approach makes the current jump ~7.8× . That is why an STM feels single-atom bumps: the exponential turns sub-atomic height differences into large, easily-measured current swings. Units: κ Δ L dimensionless ✓, ratio dimensionless ✓.
Worked example "Just plug in
E > V 0 "?
A student sets E = 3 eV, V 0 = 2 eV (so E > V 0 ) into the tunneling formula. What goes wrong, and what really happens?
Forecast: The particle has more energy than the wall is tall. Classically it always passes. Guess: is T exactly 1?
Step 1 — Look at κ . κ = 2 m ( V 0 − E ) /ℏ with V 0 − E = − 1 eV < 0 .
Why this step? A negative inside the square root means κ becomes imaginary — the E < V 0 formula is out of its domain.
Step 2 — Convert κ to a real wavenumber. Write κ = i k ′ with k ′ = 2 m ( E − V 0 ) /ℏ real.
Why this step? Imaginary decay = real oscillation. Inside the barrier the wave now oscillates instead of decaying.
Step 3 — sinh becomes sin . Using sinh ( i u ) = i sin ( u ) , so sinh 2 ( κ L ) = − sin 2 ( k ′ L ) :
T = [ 1 + 4 E ( E − V 0 ) V 0 2 s i n 2 ( k ′ L ) ] − 1 .
Why this step? The correct over-barrier formula — and it is oscillatory in L .
Step 4 — The resonance. Whenever k ′ L = nπ (n = 1 , 2 , … ), sin = 0 and T = 1 exactly (perfect transmission). At other widths T < 1 even though E > V 0 !
Why this step? This is the Ramsauer–Townsend effect: over a barrier, quantum reflection still happens except at resonant widths.
Verify: So T is not always 1 for E > V 0 — quantum mechanics reflects some wave even over a short wall, with perfect-transmission windows at k ′ L = nπ . Sanity: at sin = 0 , T = [ 1 + 0 ] − 1 = 1 ✓; at sin 2 = 1 with E = 3 , V 0 = 2 , T = [ 1 + 4 ( 3 ) ( 1 ) 4 ] − 1 = [ 1 + 3 1 ] − 1 = 0.75 , genuinely below 1 ✓. Never blindly plug E > V 0 into the sinh form.
Recall Scenario-matrix self-test
Cover the "Covered by" column and name which example handles each cell.
Thin barrier check ::: Ex 1 (approx vs exact agree ~2%)
Thick barrier ::: Ex 2 (approximation exact to many digits)
Doubling width ::: Ex 3 (~167× drop)
E → V 0 limit ::: Ex 4 (finite T ≈ 0.23 , no blowup)
L → 0 limit ::: Ex 4 (T → 1 )
Heavy particle ::: Ex 5 (T ∼ 1 0 − 95 )
Raising V 0 ::: Ex 6 (~260× drop)
STM word problem ::: Ex 7 (~7.8× current per 0.1 nm)
E > V 0 twist ::: Ex 8 (sinh → sin , resonances)
Mnemonic One line to remember every cell
"Width and mass and height all sit inside one exponential" — that is why tiny changes (0.1 nm, ×1836 mass, +3 eV) produce enormous swings in T . The only escapes are the degenerate limits (L → 0 gives T = 1 ; E ≥ V 0 gives oscillating over-barrier transmission).