This page is the drill room for the parent topic . We march through every kind of question the Law of Large Numbers (LLN) can ask, so that when the exam or a real problem hands you one, you've already seen its shape.
Before we start, plain-word reminders (so no symbol appears un-earned):
Definition The symbols we reuse everywhere
X 1 , X 2 , … — a list of independent identical repeats of one random experiment (coin flip, dice roll, random draw). "Independent" = one outcome never influences another. "Identical" = every one is drawn from the same rulebook.
μ = E [ X i ] — the true mean , the long-run average value one draw would give. Think of it as the bullseye.
X ˉ n = n 1 ∑ i = 1 n X i — the sample mean : add up your first n results, divide by n . This is the wandering dot that LLN says walks toward the bullseye.
σ 2 = Var ( X i ) = E [( X i − μ ) 2 ] — the variance , the average squared distance of one draw from μ . It measures how jumpy one draw is.
ε (epsilon) — the error tolerance we choose: a small positive number, the "how close is close enough" radius around μ . The event ∣ X ˉ n − μ ∣ ≥ ε means "the sample mean missed the bullseye by at least ε ."
δ (delta) — a target ceiling on probability we choose: a small positive number, the largest failure chance we're willing to accept (e.g. δ = 0.05 means "at most a 5% chance of missing").
Our master tool is the WLLN bound proved in the parent note:
P ( ∣ X ˉ n − μ ∣ ≥ ε ) ≤ n ε 2 σ 2
Read it as: "the chance the sample mean misses the bullseye by at least ε is capped by variance-over-(n times epsilon-squared)." This comes from Chebyshev's Inequality , which comes from Markov's Inequality .
Every LLN question falls into one of these case classes . Each example below is tagged with the cell(s) it covers.
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Case class
What's special about it
Example
A
Bound a probability at fixed n
plug straight into σ 2 / ( n ε 2 )
Ex 1
B
Invert for n (sample-size design)
solve the bound for n , target δ
Ex 2
C
Non-binary variable (dice / general range)
compute μ , σ 2 first
Ex 3
D
Degenerate input σ 2 = 0
a constant "random" variable
Ex 4
E
Limiting behaviour n → ∞ , and ε → 0
which knob wins
Ex 5
F
LLN fails — no finite mean
Cauchy / heavy tail
Ex 6
G
Real-world word problem
Monte Carlo estimate + error
Ex 7
H
Exam twist — Weak vs Strong on one path
distinguish the two modes
Ex 8
I
Fallacy trap — "streak is due"
Gambler's fallacy quantified
Ex 9
Worked example Fair coin, off by 0.1 after 100 flips
X i = 1 for heads, 0 for tails, fair coin. Bound P ( ∣ X ˉ 100 − 2 1 ∣ ≥ 0.1 ) .
Forecast: guess — is the cap closer to 5%, 25%, or 90%?
Find μ and σ 2 . For a coin, μ = p = 2 1 and σ 2 = p ( 1 − p ) = 4 1 .
Why this step? The bound needs the single-draw variance; a coin's variance is the textbook p ( 1 − p ) .
Read off n = 100 , ε = 0.1 .
Plug in: n ε 2 σ 2 = 100 ⋅ 0.01 0.25 = 1 0.25 = 0.25.
Why this step? This is just the master bound with numbers.
Answer: at most 25% . Verify: the true probability (exact binomial) is far smaller (~4.6% ), consistent with "≤ 25% ." Chebyshev is a loose ceiling , never an equality — sanity holds.
Worked example How many flips to guarantee a 5% cap?
Same coin. Find the smallest n so the bound ≤ δ with δ = 0.05 at ε = 0.1 .
Forecast: more or fewer than 100 flips than Ex 1?
Set the bound ≤ target δ : n ( 0.01 ) 0.25 ≤ δ = 0.05.
Why this step? δ is our chosen failure ceiling; we demand the WLLN bound drop to it.
Solve for n : n ≥ δ ε 2 σ 2 = 0.05 ⋅ 0.01 0.25 = 0.0005 0.25 = 500.
Why this step? Multiply both sides by n , divide by δ — the general design formula n ≥ σ 2 / ( δ ε 2 ) .
Answer: n ≥ 500 . Verify: put n = 500 back: 500 ⋅ 0.01 0.25 = 5 0.25 = 0.05 = δ ✓ — exactly the target, so 500 is the tightest integer that works. (The Central Limit Theorem would say ~96 flips truly suffice; Chebyshev over-insures.)
Worked example Average of dice rolls
X i = result of one fair six-sided die. Bound P ( ∣ X ˉ n − μ ∣ ≥ 0.5 ) for n = 200 .
Forecast: dice are jumpier than coins — will the cap be bigger?
Compute μ : μ = 6 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 6 21 = 3.5.
Why this step? μ isn't given; we average the six equally-likely faces.
Compute σ 2 : E [ X 2 ] = 6 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + 25 + 36 = 6 91 . Then
σ 2 = E [ X 2 ] − μ 2 = 6 91 − 4 49 = 12 182 − 147 = 12 35 ≈ 2.9167.
Why this step? Variance = mean-of-squares minus square-of-mean; that's the definition rearranged.
Plug in n = 200 , ε = 0.5 : 200 ⋅ 0.25 35/12 = 50 2.9167 ≈ 0.0583.
Answer: at most ≈ 5.83% . Verify: units are pure probability (dimensionless) ✓; the die's larger σ 2 (2.92 vs the coin's 0.25) is offset here by a bigger ε = 0.5 , giving a small cap — sensible.
Worked example A "random" variable that never varies
Suppose X i = 7 always (a constant). What does LLN say about X ˉ n ?
Forecast: does the bound even make sense when there's no randomness?
Find μ , σ 2 : μ = 7 , and σ 2 = E [( 7 − 7 ) 2 ] = 0.
Why this step? A constant has zero spread by definition.
Plug into the bound: P ( ∣ X ˉ n − 7∣ ≥ ε ) ≤ n ε 2 0 = 0 for every n ≥ 1 .
Why this step? Zero variance collapses the whole right side.
Interpret: X ˉ n = n 1 ( 7 + 7 + ⋯ + 7 ) = 7 exactly, always.
Answer: convergence is instant and exact — no averaging needed. Verify: X ˉ 1 = 7 = μ ✓. The degenerate case is the boundary where "settling down" takes zero effort; the bound gracefully returns 0 .
This is best seen . The band of "bad" outcomes must thin as n grows, while shrinking ε fights back.
Intuition What the figure shows (Ex 5)
Horizontal axis is n (number of draws); vertical axis is the WLLN bound σ 2 / ( n ε 2 ) , capped at 1 (a white dotted "vacuous ceiling" line — any bound at 1 tells you nothing). Three curves, one per tolerance: yellow is ε = 0.2 , blue is ε = 0.1 , red is ε = 0.05 . All three slide downward toward 0 as n grows — that's the Weak Law. But halving ε (going yellow → blue → red) lifts the whole curve fourfold (because ε 2 is in the denominator), so the smallest tolerance (red) starts pinned at the useless ceiling of 1 and takes far more draws to descend.
Common mistake A bound above 1 is not a real probability
A probability can never exceed 1 . When the formula σ 2 / ( n ε 2 ) evaluates to something ≥ 1 , it is not saying "the failure chance is 130%"; it simply says P ( ⋅ ) ≤ 1 , which is always true and tells you nothing — we call this a vacuous bound. So the honest reading is P ( ∣ X ˉ n − μ ∣ ≥ ε ) ≤ min ( 1 , n ε 2 σ 2 ) , and the figure's dotted line at 1 marks where the bound goes silent.
n → ∞ vs ε → 0
Coin (σ 2 = 4 1 ). Compare the bound as (a) n → ∞ with ε fixed, (b) ε → 0 with n fixed.
Forecast: in case (b), does the guarantee survive?
Case (a): n ε 2 1/4 n → ∞ 0.
Why this step? n sits in the denominator, so growing it drives the cap to 0 — this is the Weak Law.
Case (b): with n fixed, as ε → 0 the raw expression n ε 2 1/4 → + ∞.
Why this step? ε 2 shrinks in the denominator, blowing the expression up. But since a probability bound can't exceed 1 , the usable bound is min ( 1 , n ε 2 1/4 ) , which is stuck at 1 — vacuous , telling us nothing.
Lesson: you must send n → ∞ first to shrink noise, and only then can you afford a tiny ε . Look at the red curve (ε = 0.05 ) in the figure: it's the highest one; halving ε lifts the whole curve, but every curve still crawls to 0 .
Answer: n wins in the limit; ε alone breaks the bound into vacuousness. Verify: at n = 100 , ε = 0.05 : 100 ⋅ 0.0025 0.25 = 1.0 — exactly the useless value 1 ✓, confirming small ε empties the guarantee. See Modes of Convergence for why "in probability" is the right lens here.
Worked example Averages that never settle
Draw X i from the standard Cauchy distribution (bell-ish but with tails so fat the mean is undefined). Does X ˉ n → anything?
Forecast: more draws should help... right?
Check the hypothesis: LLN requires E ∣ X i ∣ < ∞ . For Cauchy, ∫ ∣ x ∣ f ( x ) d x = ∞ — no finite mean.
Why this step? Every LLN theorem (Chebyshev, Khinchin, Kolmogorov) assumes at minimum a finite mean; without it there's no bullseye to converge to.
Structural fact: a remarkable property of Cauchy is that X ˉ n has the same distribution as a single X 1 , for every n .
Why this step? Averaging Cauchys does not reduce spread at all — the σ 2 / n engine relies on finite variance, which is also infinite here.
Conclusion: X ˉ n keeps jumping around forever; it converges to nothing.
Answer: LLN does not apply — no convergence. Verify: Var ( X ˉ n ) = σ 2 / n needs finite σ 2 ; Cauchy has σ 2 = ∞ , so ∞/ n = ∞ — the engine is off ✓. This is the crucial "degenerate output" case: LLN is a theorem with hypotheses , not a law of nature.
Worked example Estimating
∫ 0 1 x 2 d x by random sampling
Draw U i ∼ Uniform ( 0 , 1 ) , average g ( U i ) = U i 2 . To what does I ^ n = n 1 ∑ U i 2 converge, and bound the error at n = 10 , 000 , ε = 0.01 ?
Forecast: guess the true integral first, then whether 10 , 000 samples pins it to 0.01 .
Identify the target as an expectation: E [ U 2 ] = ∫ 0 1 x 2 d x = 3 1 .
Why this step? An integral over [ 0 , 1 ] is the mean of g ( U ) — this is why Monte Carlo Methods work: LLN turns integration into averaging.
By SLLN , I ^ n → 3 1 almost surely.
Why this step? g ( U i ) are i.i.d. with finite mean, so the Strong Law guarantees the estimate lands on 3 1 forever.
Error bound. Need σ 2 = Var ( U 2 ) = E [ U 4 ] − ( E [ U 2 ] ) 2 = 5 1 − 9 1 = 45 4 ≈ 0.0889.
Why this step? Chebyshev needs the variance of one term; E [ U 4 ] = ∫ 0 1 x 4 d x = 5 1 .
Plug the bound: n ε 2 σ 2 = 10000 ⋅ 0.0001 4/45 = 1 0.0889 ≈ 0.0889.
Answer: estimate → 3 1 ; at most ≈ 8.89% chance of missing by 0.01 . Verify: 5 1 − 9 1 = 45 9 − 5 = 45 4 ✓; the bound is a valid probability ≤ 1 ✓. Want tighter? push n up — the cap falls like 1/ n .
The picture shows one random path of X ˉ n so you can literally see the two claims.
Intuition What the figure shows (Ex 8)
Horizontal axis is n (number of coin flips); vertical axis is X ˉ n , the running head-fraction. The blue dashed line is the true mean μ = 0.5 . The green band is the "funnel" μ ± ε (here ε = 0.05 ) — the region we call "close enough." The yellow wiggly curve is one actual random path: it starts jumping wildly at small n , then crawls into the green funnel. A red dot marks a late moment where the path briefly poked back out of the band — the Weak Law tolerates such rare re-escapes, while the Strong Law says they stop happening after some point.
Definition The Borel–Cantelli Lemma in one breath
Let A n be the event "path is out of the funnel at step n ", i.e. A n = { ∣ X ˉ n − μ ∣ > ε } . The First Borel–Cantelli Lemma says: if the total probability ∑ n P ( A n ) is finite, then with probability 1 only finitely many A n ever happen ("A n infinitely often" has probability 0 ). Intuition: if the whole budget of bad-event probability is a finite number, you can only afford finitely many escapes — after the last one you are trapped inside the funnel forever , which is exactly almost-sure convergence. That "stay forever" guarantee is what upgrades the Weak Law into the Strong Law.
Worked example Which law forbids re-escaping the funnel?
A student says: "By WLLN, once X ˉ n is within ε of μ , it can never leave again." True or false, and which law addresses it?
Forecast: does "in probability" pin down a single path forever?
What WLLN actually claims: for each fixed large n , P ( ∣ X ˉ n − μ ∣ > ε ) is small. It speaks about a snapshot , not the whole path.
Why this step? Convergence in probability controls each n separately — it permits rare later excursions.
What SLLN adds: P ( lim n X ˉ n = μ ) = 1 — almost every entire path enters the funnel and stays.
Why this step? Almost-sure convergence, built via the Borel–Cantelli Lemma summary above, forbids infinitely many escapes.
Verdict: the student's "can never leave" is a Strong Law statement, not Weak. WLLN alone does not forbid a later jump-out for a specific path.
Answer: the claim is a Strong-Law property, mis-attributed to the Weak Law — so as stated (crediting WLLN) it is false . Verify: in the figure, watch the yellow path briefly leave the ± ε green band at a large n and re-enter — WLLN tolerates this, SLLN says such events stop happening eventually. Strong ⇒ Weak, never the reverse.
Worked example After 10 heads, quantify how "off" the average is
A fair coin lands heads 10 times in a row (n = 10 , all heads). By how much is X ˉ 10 off μ , and does the next flip try to correct it?
Forecast: does the deviation shrink because of the streak, or despite it?
Current deviation: X ˉ 10 = 1 , so X ˉ 10 − μ = 1 − 0.5 = 0.5.
Why this step? Ten heads gives fraction 1 ; subtract the true rate 0.5 .
The sum of deviations: ∑ i = 1 10 ( X i − μ ) = 10 ⋅ 0.5 = 5. This raw surplus does not get pushed back down by the coin.
Why this step? The X i are independent — the coin has no memory, so future flips carry no "correcting force." See Gambler's Fallacy .
How the average heals — by dilution: if the next 990 flips are perfectly average (half heads), then X ˉ 1000 = 1000 10 + 495 = 1000 505 = 0.505.
Why this step? The surplus of 5 is now shared among 1000 flips: deviation drops from 0.5 to 0.005 without the streak ever being "cancelled."
Answer: the streak isn't reversed; it's outvoted as n grows. Deviation went 0.5 → 0.005 . Verify: 1000 505 − 2 1 = 0.005 ✓, exactly 1000 5 — the fixed surplus over a growing n . This is the rigorous refutation of "tails is due."
Recall Which cell does "solve for the smallest
n " belong to, and what's the algebra?
Cell B. Set n ε 2 σ 2 ≤ δ (where δ is your chosen probability ceiling) and invert: n ≥ δ ε 2 σ 2 .
Recall Why does LLN fail for the Cauchy distribution?
No finite mean (E ∣ X ∣ = ∞ ), so there is no μ to converge to; X ˉ n stays Cauchy-distributed for all n .
Recall A streak of 10 heads: does the coin push back? How does the average recover?
No push-back (independence, the coin has no memory). Recovery is by dilution — the fixed surplus becomes a tiny fraction of a large n , so the deviation shrinks even though the surplus itself never disappears.
Recall State Khinchin's and Kolmogorov's laws and how they differ from the Chebyshev proof.
Both need only E ∣ X ∣ < ∞ . Khinchin gives convergence in probability (Weak); Kolmogorov gives convergence almost surely (Strong). Chebyshev's proof needs the extra hypothesis σ 2 < ∞ but rewards you with an explicit rate σ 2 / ( n ε 2 ) .
Deviation of X ˉ n for a constant X i = 7 exactly 0 for all n ; σ 2 = 0 makes the bound vanish.
The knob that must go to infinity for WLLN n ; shrinking ε alone makes the bound vacuous.
A probability bound that evaluates to 1 or more is vacuous — it only says P ≤ 1 , which is always true.