Intuition The big picture (WHY this works)
A vibrating string can't move any way it wants — its ends are pinned down .
Nature solves this by building the motion out of simple standing-wave "modes" :
each mode keeps its shape fixed and only its amplitude breathes up and down in time.
Separation of variables is the mathematical trick that guesses the solution is
(a shape in $x$) × (a wiggle in $t$), turns one hard PDE into two easy ODEs , and then
superposes all the modes to fit any starting shape.
Definition The 1-D wave equation (Dirichlet string)
A string of length L L L , fixed at both ends, satisfies
∂ 2 u ∂ t 2 = c 2 ∂ 2 u ∂ x 2 , 0 < x < L , t > 0 \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2} = c^2 \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2}, \quad 0<x<L,\ t>0 ∂ t 2 ∂ 2 u = c 2 ∂ x 2 ∂ 2 u , 0 < x < L , t > 0
with
Boundary conditions (BCs): u ( 0 , t ) = 0 u(0,t)=0 u ( 0 , t ) = 0 , u ( L , t ) = 0 u(L,t)=0 u ( L , t ) = 0 (ends pinned)
Initial conditions (ICs): u ( x , 0 ) = f ( x ) u(x,0)=f(x) u ( x , 0 ) = f ( x ) (initial shape), u t ( x , 0 ) = g ( x ) u_t(x,0)=g(x) u t ( x , 0 ) = g ( x ) (initial velocity)
Here u ( x , t ) u(x,t) u ( x , t ) is the transverse displacement and c c c is the wave speed (c 2 = T / ρ c^2 = T/\rho c 2 = T / ρ , tension over linear density).
WHAT we want: a function u ( x , t ) u(x,t) u ( x , t ) satisfying the PDE + 2 BCs + 2 ICs.
WHY separation works: the PDE is linear & homogeneous , and the BCs are homogeneous (= 0 =0 = 0 ), so sums of solutions are still solutions — that's the engine of superposition.
Intuition Why guess a product?
If the shape never changes (only its size), then u ( x , t ) = X ( x ) T ( t ) u(x,t)=X(x)T(t) u ( x , t ) = X ( x ) T ( t ) : spatial profile X X X times a time-amplitude T T T . We test this guess; if the algebra is consistent, the guess is justified.
Assume
u ( x , t ) = X ( x ) T ( t ) . u(x,t)=X(x)\,T(t). u ( x , t ) = X ( x ) T ( t ) .
Plug into the PDE. Since u t t = X T ′ ′ u_{tt}=X T'' u tt = X T ′′ and u x x = X ′ ′ T u_{xx}=X'' T u xx = X ′′ T :
X T ′ ′ = c 2 X ′ ′ T . X\,T'' = c^2 X'' \,T. X T ′′ = c 2 X ′′ T .
Why this step? It converts derivatives of a 2-variable function into derivatives of 1-variable functions.
Divide both sides by c 2 X T c^2 X T c 2 X T :
T ′ ′ c 2 T = X ′ ′ X . \frac{T''}{c^2 T} = \frac{X''}{X}. c 2 T T ′′ = X X ′′ .
Why this step? The left side depends only on t t t , the right side only on x x x . Two things equal for all x , t x,t x , t can only happen if both equal the same constant . Call it − λ -\lambda − λ (minus chosen for convenience — we'll see we need oscillation):
X ′ ′ X = T ′ ′ c 2 T = − λ . \frac{X''}{X}=\frac{T''}{c^2T}=-\lambda. X X ′′ = c 2 T T ′′ = − λ .
This gives two ODEs :
X ′ ′ + λ X = 0 , T ′ ′ + c 2 λ T = 0. X'' + \lambda X = 0, \qquad T'' + c^2\lambda\, T = 0. X ′′ + λ X = 0 , T ′′ + c 2 λ T = 0.
The BCs u ( 0 , t ) = u ( L , t ) = 0 u(0,t)=u(L,t)=0 u ( 0 , t ) = u ( L , t ) = 0 must hold for all t t t , and T ( t ) ≢ 0 T(t)\not\equiv 0 T ( t ) ≡ 0 , so
X ( 0 ) = 0 , X ( L ) = 0. X(0)=0, \qquad X(L)=0. X ( 0 ) = 0 , X ( L ) = 0.
We solve X ′ ′ + λ X = 0 X''+\lambda X=0 X ′′ + λ X = 0 and check three cases for λ \lambda λ (Steel-man each!):
λ < 0 \lambda<0 λ < 0 (say λ = − μ 2 \lambda=-\mu^2 λ = − μ 2 ): X = A e μ x + B e − μ x X=Ae^{\mu x}+Be^{-\mu x} X = A e μx + B e − μx . BCs force A = B = 0 A=B=0 A = B = 0 . Only trivial solution. Rejected.
λ = 0 \lambda=0 λ = 0 : X = A x + B X=Ax+B X = A x + B . BCs force A = B = 0 A=B=0 A = B = 0 . Trivial. Rejected.
λ > 0 \lambda>0 λ > 0 (say λ = k 2 \lambda=k^2 λ = k 2 ): X = A cos k x + B sin k x X=A\cos kx + B\sin kx X = A cos k x + B sin k x .
λ > 0 \lambda>0 λ > 0 survives
The string is bounded and clamped . Decaying exponentials can't return to zero at both ends without being flat zero. Only oscillating sin / cos \sin/\cos sin / cos can pin to zero at two places — that's a wave.
Apply BCs to the λ > 0 \lambda>0 λ > 0 case:
X ( 0 ) = A = 0 ⇒ A = 0 X(0)=A=0 \Rightarrow A=0 X ( 0 ) = A = 0 ⇒ A = 0 .
X ( L ) = B sin k L = 0 X(L)=B\sin kL =0 X ( L ) = B sin k L = 0 . For a nontrivial B ≠ 0 B\ne0 B = 0 : sin k L = 0 ⇒ k L = n π \sin kL=0 \Rightarrow kL=n\pi sin k L = 0 ⇒ k L = nπ .
So the eigenvalues and eigenfunctions are
λ n = ( n π L ) 2 , X n ( x ) = sin n π x L , n = 1 , 2 , 3 , … \lambda_n=\left(\frac{n\pi}{L}\right)^2,\qquad X_n(x)=\sin\!\frac{n\pi x}{L},\quad n=1,2,3,\dots λ n = ( L nπ ) 2 , X n ( x ) = sin L nπ x , n = 1 , 2 , 3 , …
With λ n = ( n π / L ) 2 \lambda_n=(n\pi/L)^2 λ n = ( nπ / L ) 2 :
T n ′ ′ + c 2 λ n T n = 0 ⇒ T n ′ ′ + ω n 2 T n = 0 , ω n = n π c L . T_n''+c^2\lambda_n T_n=0 \Rightarrow T_n''+\omega_n^2 T_n=0,\quad \omega_n=\frac{n\pi c}{L}. T n ′′ + c 2 λ n T n = 0 ⇒ T n ′′ + ω n 2 T n = 0 , ω n = L nπ c .
This is simple harmonic motion:
T n ( t ) = a n cos ω n t + b n sin ω n t . T_n(t)=a_n\cos\omega_n t + b_n\sin\omega_n t. T n ( t ) = a n cos ω n t + b n sin ω n t .
Why this step? ω n \omega_n ω n are the natural frequencies of the string — the harmonics you hear from a guitar.
Why a sum? Each u n = X n T n u_n=X_nT_n u n = X n T n solves the (linear, homogeneous) PDE + BCs. By superposition, any sum does too. We use the freedom in a n , b n a_n,b_n a n , b n to fit the ICs.
Position IC u ( x , 0 ) = f ( x ) u(x,0)=f(x) u ( x , 0 ) = f ( x ) : set t = 0 t=0 t = 0 (cos 0 = 1 , sin 0 = 0 \cos0=1,\sin0=0 cos 0 = 1 , sin 0 = 0 ):
f ( x ) = ∑ n = 1 ∞ a n sin n π x L . f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}. f ( x ) = ∑ n = 1 ∞ a n sin L nπ x .
This is a Fourier sine series , so by orthogonality ∫ 0 L sin m π x L sin n π x L d x = L 2 δ m n \int_0^L \sin\frac{m\pi x}{L}\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}dx=\frac{L}{2}\delta_{mn} ∫ 0 L sin L mπ x sin L nπ x d x = 2 L δ mn :
a n = 2 L ∫ 0 L f ( x ) sin n π x L d x \boxed{a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int_0^L f(x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}\,dx} a n = L 2 ∫ 0 L f ( x ) sin L nπ x d x
Velocity IC u t ( x , 0 ) = g ( x ) u_t(x,0)=g(x) u t ( x , 0 ) = g ( x ) : differentiate u u u in t t t , set t = 0 t=0 t = 0 (d d t cos ω n t ∣ 0 = 0 \frac{d}{dt}\cos\omega_n t|_0=0 d t d cos ω n t ∣ 0 = 0 , d d t sin ω n t ∣ 0 = ω n \frac{d}{dt}\sin\omega_n t|_0=\omega_n d t d sin ω n t ∣ 0 = ω n ):
g ( x ) = ∑ n = 1 ∞ b n ω n sin n π x L ⇒ b n ω n = 2 L ∫ 0 L g ( x ) sin n π x L d x . g(x)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n\,\omega_n\,\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}\Rightarrow b_n\omega_n=\frac{2}{L}\int_0^L g(x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}dx. g ( x ) = ∑ n = 1 ∞ b n ω n sin L nπ x ⇒ b n ω n = L 2 ∫ 0 L g ( x ) sin L nπ x d x .
So
b n = 2 n π c ∫ 0 L g ( x ) sin n π x L d x ( using ω n = n π c L ) . \boxed{b_n=\frac{2}{n\pi c}\int_0^L g(x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}\,dx} \quad(\text{using }\omega_n=\tfrac{n\pi c}{L}). b n = nπ c 2 ∫ 0 L g ( x ) sin L nπ x d x ( using ω n = L nπ c ) .
Worked example Example 1 — Plucked string starting at rest
L = π L=\pi L = π , c = 2 c=2 c = 2 , u ( x , 0 ) = f ( x ) = 3 sin x − sin 4 x u(x,0)=f(x)=3\sin x - \sin 4x u ( x , 0 ) = f ( x ) = 3 sin x − sin 4 x , u t ( x , 0 ) = 0 u_t(x,0)=0 u t ( x , 0 ) = 0 .
Step A — velocity is zero ⇒ all b n = 0 b_n=0 b n = 0 .
Why? g ≡ 0 g\equiv0 g ≡ 0 makes every b n b_n b n integral vanish. Only cos \cos cos terms survive.
Step B — read off a n a_n a n by inspection.
Why? f f f is already a sine series with L = π L=\pi L = π (sin n π x π = sin n x \sin\frac{n\pi x}{\pi}=\sin nx sin π nπ x = sin n x ). Match terms:
a 1 = 3 a_1=3 a 1 = 3 , a 4 = − 1 a_4=-1 a 4 = − 1 , all others 0 0 0 . (No integral needed — that's the 80/20 shortcut.)
Step C — write each mode's frequency. ω n = n π c L = n π ⋅ 2 π = 2 n \omega_n=\frac{n\pi c}{L}=\frac{n\pi\cdot2}{\pi}=2n ω n = L nπ c = π nπ ⋅ 2 = 2 n .
Answer:
u ( x , t ) = 3 cos ( 2 t ) sin x − cos ( 8 t ) sin 4 x . u(x,t)=3\cos(2t)\sin x - \cos(8t)\sin 4x. u ( x , t ) = 3 cos ( 2 t ) sin x − cos ( 8 t ) sin 4 x .
Worked example Example 2 — Struck string (hammer blow), starting flat
L = 1 L=1 L = 1 , c = 1 c=1 c = 1 , u ( x , 0 ) = 0 u(x,0)=0 u ( x , 0 ) = 0 , u t ( x , 0 ) = g ( x ) = 1 u_t(x,0)=g(x)=1 u t ( x , 0 ) = g ( x ) = 1 (uniform initial velocity).
Step A — flat start ⇒ all a n = 0 a_n=0 a n = 0 . Why? f ≡ 0 f\equiv0 f ≡ 0 .
Step B — compute b n b_n b n : ω n = n π \omega_n=n\pi ω n = nπ , so
b n = 2 n π ∫ 0 1 1 ⋅ sin ( n π x ) d x = 2 n π ⋅ 1 − cos n π n π = 2 ( 1 − ( − 1 ) n ) n 2 π 2 . b_n=\frac{2}{n\pi}\int_0^1 1\cdot\sin(n\pi x)\,dx=\frac{2}{n\pi}\cdot\frac{1-\cos n\pi}{n\pi}=\frac{2(1-(-1)^n)}{n^2\pi^2}. b n = nπ 2 ∫ 0 1 1 ⋅ sin ( nπ x ) d x = nπ 2 ⋅ nπ 1 − c o s nπ = n 2 π 2 2 ( 1 − ( − 1 ) n ) .
Why this step? ∫ 0 1 sin ( n π x ) d x = 1 − cos n π n π \int_0^1\sin(n\pi x)dx=\frac{1-\cos n\pi}{n\pi} ∫ 0 1 sin ( nπ x ) d x = nπ 1 − c o s nπ . Even n n n gives 0 0 0 ; odd n n n gives 4 n 2 π 2 \frac{4}{n^2\pi^2} n 2 π 2 4 .
Answer (odd n n n only):
u ( x , t ) = ∑ n odd 4 n 2 π 2 sin ( n π t ) sin ( n π x ) . u(x,t)=\sum_{n\ \text{odd}}\frac{4}{n^2\pi^2}\sin(n\pi t)\sin(n\pi x). u ( x , t ) = ∑ n odd n 2 π 2 4 sin ( nπ t ) sin ( nπ x ) .
Worked example Example 3 — Triangular pluck (using the integral)
L = L L=L L = L , g = 0 g=0 g = 0 , f ( x ) = { 2 h x L , 0 ≤ x ≤ L / 2 2 h ( L − x ) L , L / 2 ≤ x ≤ L f(x)=\begin{cases}\frac{2hx}{L},&0\le x\le L/2\\[2pt]\frac{2h(L-x)}{L},&L/2\le x\le L\end{cases} f ( x ) = { L 2 h x , L 2 h ( L − x ) , 0 ≤ x ≤ L /2 L /2 ≤ x ≤ L (tent peaked at center).
Step: a n = 2 L ∫ 0 L f sin n π x L d x a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int_0^L f\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}dx a n = L 2 ∫ 0 L f sin L nπ x d x . By symmetry only odd n n n survive, and the integral gives
a n = 8 h π 2 n 2 sin n π 2 . a_n=\frac{8h}{\pi^2 n^2}\sin\frac{n\pi}{2}. a n = π 2 n 2 8 h sin 2 nπ .
Why this step? The tent is symmetric about x = L / 2 x=L/2 x = L /2 ; antisymmetric (even) modes integrate to 0. sin n π 2 = ± 1 \sin\frac{n\pi}{2}=\pm1 sin 2 nπ = ± 1 for odd n n n , 0 0 0 for even.
Answer: u ( x , t ) = ∑ n odd 8 h π 2 n 2 sin n π 2 cos n π c t L sin n π x L . u(x,t)=\sum_{n\ \text{odd}}\frac{8h}{\pi^2 n^2}\sin\frac{n\pi}{2}\cos\frac{n\pi c t}{L}\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}. u ( x , t ) = ∑ n odd π 2 n 2 8 h sin 2 nπ cos L nπ c t sin L nπ x . The 1 / n 2 1/n^2 1/ n 2 falloff means the fundamental dominates — that's why a plucked guitar mostly sounds its lowest note.
Common mistake "I'll just pick
+ λ +\lambda + λ as the separation constant."
Why it feels right: Sign of a constant seems arbitrary.
What goes wrong: + λ +\lambda + λ gives X ′ ′ − λ X = 0 X''-\lambda X=0 X ′′ − λ X = 0 → exponentials → only trivial solution under clamped BCs. You'd wrongly conclude "no solution."
Fix: The physics (clamped, oscillating) demands X ′ ′ + λ X = 0 X''+\lambda X=0 X ′′ + λ X = 0 with λ > 0 \lambda>0 λ > 0 . Always test all three sign cases and let the BCs choose.
Common mistake Forgetting to divide
b n b_n b n by ω n \omega_n ω n .
Why it feels right: The position coefficient a n a_n a n comes straight from a sine series, so you expect the velocity one to also.
What goes wrong: Differentiating T T T in time brings down a factor ω n \omega_n ω n , so b n = 2 n π c ∫ g sin ( ⋯ ) b_n=\frac{2}{n\pi c}\int g\sin(\cdots) b n = nπ c 2 ∫ g sin ( ⋯ ) , not 2 L ∫ g sin ( ⋯ ) \frac{2}{L}\int g\sin(\cdots) L 2 ∫ g sin ( ⋯ ) .
Fix: Remember u t ( x , 0 ) = ∑ b n ω n sin n π x L u_t(x,0)=\sum b_n\omega_n\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L} u t ( x , 0 ) = ∑ b n ω n sin L nπ x , so the Fourier coefficient is b n ω n b_n\omega_n b n ω n .
n = 0 n=0 n = 0 or even thinking cos n π x L \cos\frac{n\pi x}{L} cos L nπ x appears.
Why it feels right: Fourier series usually have cosines and a constant term.
What goes wrong: Dirichlet BCs (u = 0 u=0 u = 0 at both ends) kill all cosine spatial modes and the n = 0 n=0 n = 0 term. Only sines survive.
Fix: Match spatial eigenfunctions to the BCs first. Pinned ends ⇒ pure sine series, n ≥ 1 n\ge1 n ≥ 1 .
Recall Feynman: explain to a 12-year-old
Pluck a guitar string. It can only jiggle in special "shapes" — one big hump, two humps, three humps — because its ends are glued down and can't move. Each shape has its own musical note (faster wiggle = higher note). When you pluck, you start with some shape; the string is secretly adding up all these special humps in just the right amounts to make that shape, and then each hump bounces up and down at its own speed forever. Our math just figures out how much of each hump is in the starting shape (that's the "Fourier" part) and how fast each bounces (that's the frequency).
Mnemonic Remember the recipe:
"SPLIT–PICK–PIN–TIME–SUM–FIT"
S plit u = X T u=XT u = X T → Pi ck constant − λ -\lambda − λ → Pin BCs give X n = sin n π x L X_n=\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L} X n = sin L nπ x → Time ODE gives cos / sin ω n t \cos/\sin\omega_n t cos / sin ω n t → Sum all modes → Fit ICs with Fourier sine coefficients.
Why does separation of variables require the PDE to be linear and the BCs homogeneous? So superposition holds — sums of product solutions are still solutions and still satisfy the zero BCs, letting us fit ICs.
In X ′ ′ = − λ X X''=-\lambda X X ′′ = − λ X with X ( 0 ) = X ( L ) = 0 X(0)=X(L)=0 X ( 0 ) = X ( L ) = 0 , why are λ ≤ 0 \lambda\le0 λ ≤ 0 rejected? They give only exponential/linear
X X X , which can't be zero at two distinct points without being identically zero (trivial solution).
What are the eigenvalues and eigenfunctions of the clamped string? λ n = ( n π / L ) 2 \lambda_n=(n\pi/L)^2 λ n = ( nπ / L ) 2 ,
X n ( x ) = sin ( n π x / L ) X_n(x)=\sin(n\pi x/L) X n ( x ) = sin ( nπ x / L ) ,
n = 1 , 2 , … n=1,2,\dots n = 1 , 2 , … Why is the spatial part a sine and not a cosine? BC
u ( 0 , t ) = 0 u(0,t)=0 u ( 0 , t ) = 0 kills the cosine (
cos 0 = 1 \cos0=1 cos 0 = 1 ), leaving only
sin \sin sin .
What are the natural frequencies ω n \omega_n ω n ? ω n = n π c / L \omega_n=n\pi c/L ω n = nπ c / L , so the time part is
a n cos ω n t + b n sin ω n t a_n\cos\omega_n t+b_n\sin\omega_n t a n cos ω n t + b n sin ω n t .
Formula for a n a_n a n from initial shape f ( x ) f(x) f ( x ) ? a n = 2 L ∫ 0 L f ( x ) sin n π x L d x a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int_0^L f(x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}dx a n = L 2 ∫ 0 L f ( x ) sin L nπ x d x .
Formula for b n b_n b n from initial velocity g ( x ) g(x) g ( x ) , and why the extra factor? b n = 2 n π c ∫ 0 L g ( x ) sin n π x L d x b_n=\frac{2}{n\pi c}\int_0^L g(x)\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}dx b n = nπ c 2 ∫ 0 L g ( x ) sin L nπ x d x ; differentiating
T T T in time pulls down
ω n = n π c / L \omega_n=n\pi c/L ω n = nπ c / L , so divide by it.
If u t ( x , 0 ) = 0 u_t(x,0)=0 u t ( x , 0 ) = 0 , what happens to all b n b_n b n ? They are all zero; only
cos ω n t \cos\omega_n t cos ω n t terms remain.
General solution of clamped wave equation? u = ∑ n ( a n cos n π c t L + b n sin n π c t L ) sin n π x L u=\sum_n(a_n\cos\frac{n\pi ct}{L}+b_n\sin\frac{n\pi ct}{L})\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L} u = ∑ n ( a n cos L nπ c t + b n sin L nπ c t ) sin L nπ x .
Orthogonality relation used to extract coefficients? ∫ 0 L sin m π x L sin n π x L d x = L 2 δ m n \int_0^L\sin\frac{m\pi x}{L}\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}dx=\frac{L}{2}\delta_{mn} ∫ 0 L sin L mπ x sin L nπ x d x = 2 L δ mn .
Fourier sine series — how a n a_n a n , b n b_n b n are computed; the same orthogonality engine.
Sturm–Liouville theory — the spatial problem X ′ ′ + λ X = 0 X''+\lambda X=0 X ′′ + λ X = 0 is a special eigenvalue problem; guarantees real eigenvalues and orthogonal eigenfunctions.
Heat equation — separation of variables — same spatial ODE, but time ODE is first order (T ′ = − c 2 λ T T'=-c^2\lambda T T ′ = − c 2 λ T ) → decay instead of oscillation.
d'Alembert solution of the wave equation — alternative method (u = F ( x − c t ) + G ( x + c t ) u=F(x-ct)+G(x+ct) u = F ( x − c t ) + G ( x + c t ) ); equivalent to summing the modes.
Standing waves and harmonics — physics of ω n = n π c / L \omega_n=n\pi c/L ω n = nπ c / L , overtones, timbre.
Superposition principle — why summing modes is legal.
Wave equation u_tt = c^2 u_xx
Homogeneous BCs pinned ends
Initial shape f and velocity g
Linear homogeneous problem
Two ODEs with constant -lambda
Spatial ODE X'' + lambda X
Eigenvalues lambda greater than 0
Sine modes standing waves
Intuition Hinglish mein samjho
Socho ek guitar ki string dono ends pe fixed hai. Wo string kaise bhi hil nahi sakti — kyunki ends pinned hain. Isliye nature solution ko chhote-chhote "standing wave modes" se banata hai: har mode ka shape fix rehta hai (ek hump, do hump, teen hump...) aur sirf uski height time ke saath up-down breathe karti hai. Yahi physical intuition separation of variables ke peeche hai.
Maths mein hum guess karte hain u ( x , t ) = X ( x ) T ( t ) u(x,t)=X(x)T(t) u ( x , t ) = X ( x ) T ( t ) — yaani shape in x x x multiply by wiggle in t t t . PDE mein daalne se ek hard equation do easy ODE ban jaati hai, ek constant − λ -\lambda − λ ke saath. Boundary conditions (u = 0 u=0 u = 0 dono ends pe) lagao to sirf X n = sin ( n π x / L ) X_n=\sin(n\pi x/L) X n = sin ( nπ x / L ) survive karte hain, with λ n = ( n π / L ) 2 \lambda_n=(n\pi/L)^2 λ n = ( nπ / L ) 2 . Time part SHM nikalta hai: cos ( ω n t ) \cos(\omega_n t) cos ( ω n t ) aur sin ( ω n t ) \sin(\omega_n t) sin ( ω n t ) with ω n = n π c / L \omega_n=n\pi c/L ω n = nπ c / L — yahi natural frequencies hain jo aapko guitar ki notes sunaati hain.
Phir saare modes ko superpose (add) karke general solution banta hai. Initial shape f ( x ) f(x) f ( x ) aur initial velocity g ( x ) g(x) g ( x ) ko match karne ke liye Fourier sine series use karte hain: a n = 2 L ∫ f sin a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int f\sin a n = L 2 ∫ f sin , aur b n = 2 n π c ∫ g sin b_n=\frac{2}{n\pi c}\int g\sin b n = nπ c 2 ∫ g sin . Yaad rakho — b n b_n b n mein ω n \omega_n ω n se divide karna padta hai kyunki time derivative ek ω n \omega_n ω n neeche le aata hai. Yeh chhoti si galti exams mein bahut hoti hai!
Importance: yahi method heat equation, electromagnetic waves, quantum mechanics (Schrodinger box) — sab mein same hai. Ek baar logic clear ho gaya, to bas ODE aur Fourier coefficients ka kaam reh jaata hai. 80/20 tip: agar f f f ya g g g already sine ke terms mein diya hai, integral mat karo — directly coefficients read off karo.