Derive L{eat} first (it is the easiest and most reusable):
L{eat}=∫0∞e−steatdt=∫0∞e−(s−a)tdt=[−(s−a)e−(s−a)t]0∞=s−a1,
Why s>a? We need s−a>0 so the exponential decays at infinity. This is just the L{1} proof with s→s−a.
Derive L{tn} by a recursion (integration by parts).
Let In=∫0∞e−sttndt. Use ∫udv=uv−∫vdu with u=tn,dv=e−stdt:
In=[tn−se−st]0∞+sn∫0∞e−sttn−1dt.
Why this choice? Differentiating tn lowers its power, building a recursion.
The boundary term vanishes: at ∞, e−st beats any polynomial (s>0); at 0, tn=0 for n≥1. Hence
In=snIn−1.
Unrolling from I0=L{1}=1/s:
In=sn⋅sn−1⋯s1⋅s1=sn+1n!.
Derivation. Write hyperbolic functions in exponentials and use linearity + step 2:
L{coshat}=L{2eat+e−at}=21(s−a1+s+a1)=s2−a2s.L{sinhat}=L{2eat−e−at}=21(s−a1−s+a1)=s2−a2a.
Why s>∣a∣? We need both eat and e−at pieces to converge, i.e. s>aands>−a.
Q: Without computing, guess L{cosat} given you already know L{sinat}=s2+a2a.
Predict: numerator should be s (cos→even, value 1 at t=0), same denominator.
Verify:s2+a2s ✓. Note the trick: replacing a→ia turns sin/cos into sinh/cosh, i.e. s2+a2→s2−a2.
What is the defining integral of the Laplace transform of f(t)?
∫0∞e−stf(t)dt, for s in the region of convergence.
L{1}=? and its condition
1/s, valid for s>0.
L{eat}=?
s−a1 for s>a.
Why does the L{1} integral need s>0?
So e−st→0 as t→∞; otherwise the area diverges.
L{tn}=? and how is it derived?
n!/sn+1; from the recursion In=snIn−1 via integration by parts, starting at I0=1/s.
L{sinat} and L{cosat}?
s2+a2a and s2+a2s.
How do you get sin/cos transforms from L{eiat}?
Compute s−ia1=s2+a2s+ia, then take real part (cos) and imaginary part (sin).
L{coshat} and L{sinhat}?
s2−a2s and s2−a2a, for s>∣a∣.
How does the trig denominator become the hyperbolic one?
Replace a→ia: s2+a2→s2−a2.
Recall Feynman: explain to a 12-year-old
Imagine you weigh a function. The weight you put on each moment t is e−st — heavy near the start, fading later. You add up "function × weight" over all time to get one number per choice of s. For simple functions like a flat line, growing exponential, or wiggling sine, that adding-up gives clean fractions. We prove each one just by doing the adding-up (an integral) carefully, and noting how big s must be so the total doesn't run off to infinity.
Dekho, Laplace transform ek aisi machine hai jo time-domain ki function f(t) ko leke usko s-domain mein convert kar deti hai, ek hi formula se: ∫0∞e−stf(t)dt. Yeh e−st ek "weight" ki tarah kaam karta hai — shuru mein heavy, baad mein fade ho jaata hai. Agar s kaafi bada ho to yeh weight function ko itna daba deta hai ki total area finite aa jaata hai. Isiliye har transform ke saath ek condition aati hai jaise s>0 ya s>a — yeh ignore mat karna, yeh answer ka part hai.
Ab proofs simple hain. L{1}=1/s to bas e−st ka direct integral hai. L{eat} same cheez hai bas s ki jagah s−a — isko "shift" bolte hain. L{tn}=n!/sn+1 ke liye integration by parts se recursion banate hain In=snIn−1, aur unroll karne par factorial nikal aata hai. Yaad rakhna n! bhulna sabse common galti hai.
Sin aur cos ke liye sabse smart tarika: eiat=cosat+isinat. Toh L{eiat}=s−ia1=s2+a2s+ia nikalo, real part cos hai aur imaginary part sin. Hyperbolic functions ke liye sinh,cosh ko exponentials mein todo, phir same exponential formula laga do — denominator s2−a2 aata hai (minus sign!). Mnemonic: trig waale mein PLUS, hyperbolic waale mein MINUS. Yeh chhoti table physics, signals, aur ODE solving sab mein baar baar aati hai, isiliye proof samajhna zaroori hai — ratta nahi.