4.3.10 · D5Calculus III — Sequences & Series

Question bank — Alternating series test — Leibniz test, proof

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Notation reminder so nothing is used unearned: an alternating series is a sum whose terms flip sign every step. Call the -th term (so is the first term, the second, and so on — signs included). Its size is , the absolute value with the sign stripped away. Then we write , where is only the sign-flipper and carries all the real content. is the -th partial sum (the running total after terms), and is the true infinite sum when it exists.

By bracket-squeeze we mean the core proof move: grouping the terms into brackets like so each bracket is , which traps the partial sums between an increasing floor and a fixed ceiling — that squeeze is what forces convergence.


True or false — justify

If , then converges.
False. Vanishing terms is only condition 2; without monotone decrease the bracket-squeeze in the proof can fail, so convergence is not guaranteed.
If converges, then .
True. Any convergent series (alternating or not) must have terms tending to zero — this is the nth-term test read in reverse.
The Leibniz test can prove that a series diverges.
False. It is a one-way test: passing it proves convergence, but failing it (e.g. not monotone) proves nothing on its own.
If , the alternating series diverges.
True, but by the nth-term test, not by Leibniz — terms that don't vanish can never sum to a finite limit.
The alternating harmonic series and the harmonic series have the same convergence behaviour.
False. converges (to ); the plain harmonic series diverges. The alternation rescues it.
Every convergent alternating series is only conditionally convergent.
False. Some converge absolutely, e.g. , since converges. Alternation being present does not force conditional convergence.
The true sum equals the first term .
False. The proof shows ; that is an upper bound, not the value. The true lies strictly between and .
For a Leibniz series, the partial sums straddle the limit: consecutive sit on opposite sides of .
True. Odd partial sums overshoot and even ones undershoot (or vice versa), each jump shrinking, which is exactly why is trapped between them.
The error bound requires the terms to be decreasing, not just .
True. The straddling that gives the bound relies on monotonicity; without it the sum need not lie between consecutive partial sums.
Monotone decrease only needs to hold "eventually" (for large ), not from .
True. Finitely many early terms cannot affect convergence, so decrease from some onward is enough — you just apply the test to the tail.

Spot the error

" converges by Leibniz because it alternates and each term is less than 1."
The error: condition 2 is violated — . Boundedness by 1 is irrelevant; the series diverges by the nth-term test.
" and alternates, so Leibniz gives convergence."
The error: is not monotone decreasing (it wiggles up). The bracket argument breaks, so Leibniz simply does not apply.
"Since Leibniz proved , we conclude when terms are tiny after the first."
The error: an inequality is not an equality. is pinned between and , so whenever .
"The series converges, so I can rearrange its terms freely without changing the sum."
The error: conditional convergence (like alternating harmonic) forbids free rearrangement — Riemann's theorem says you can make it sum to anything. Only absolutely convergent series rearrange safely (see Absolute vs Conditional Convergence).
"To check monotonicity I confirmed , so is decreasing."
The error: one comparison isn't a pattern. You need for all (large) , usually shown via for or an algebraic ratio/difference argument.
" was enough to converge here, and has , so the harmonic series converges too."
The error: the alternation plus monotonicity did the work, not alone. The plain harmonic series has no sign-flipping to trap partial sums, and it diverges.

Why questions

Why must we group as rather than sum term by term?
Grouping exposes that each bracket is (from decrease), which instantly shows the even partial sums are increasing — the first half of the Monotone Convergence setup.
Why do we regroup a second time as ?
To get an upper bound: every new bracket is subtracted and non-negative, forcing . Increasing plus bounded above then gives convergence by the Monotone Convergence Theorem.
Why does showing the even partial sums converge not finish the proof by itself?
A subsequence converging doesn't force the whole sequence to converge; the odd sums could head elsewhere. We must show both go to the same .
Why is exactly the ingredient that merges the odd and even limits?
Because , and makes the odd limit equal the even limit . Without it the two limits differ and has no single limit.
Why does the error bound "first omitted term" fall out for free?
Since lies between and , and those differ by exactly , the distance from to cannot exceed that gap.
Why do we always check separately even after Leibniz succeeds?
Leibniz only certifies convergence, not absolute convergence. Testing tells you whether it's absolute or merely conditional — crucial for rearrangement and further manipulation.
Why is Leibniz so useful for power series endpoints?
At an endpoint the series often becomes alternating with decreasing terms, where absolute-convergence tests are inconclusive but Leibniz cleanly settles convergence.

Edge cases

If is eventually constant (say for all large ), does Leibniz apply?
No. It's weakly decreasing but , so condition 2 fails and the series diverges by the nth-term test.
If for infinitely many , is the series still "alternating"?
Borderline: the definition wants . Zeros break the strict sign-flip pattern; you'd first drop the zero terms and reindex before applying the test.
What if for some (ties in the decrease)?
Fine — the test allows , so ties are permitted. Each bracket is still (possibly ), and the argument goes through.
A series is alternating and , but increases on a finite stretch then decreases forever after. Converges?
Yes. Convergence depends only on the tail; apply Leibniz from where monotonicity begins, since the finite front changes the sum but not whether it converges.
Can an alternating series converge even though it fails BOTH Leibniz conditions?
Yes — Leibniz is sufficient, not necessary. A cleverly arranged non-monotone, still-vanishing series could converge; Leibniz just wouldn't be the tool that proves it.
If every is the same as some convergent absolute series' terms, is conditional/absolute distinction still needed?
Yes — if converges the alternating version converges absolutely, so "conditional" wouldn't apply. The distinction always hinges on , never on the signs.

Recall One-line summary of every trap

Leibniz needs Down to Zero (decreasing and vanishing); it only proves convergence, gives an upper bound not the value, and never tells you absolute vs conditional — check for that.

Connections