Notation reminder so nothing is used unearned: an alternating series is a sum whose terms flip sign every step. Call the n-th term an (so a1 is the first term, a2 the second, and so on — signs included). Its size is bn=∣an∣>0, the absolute value with the sign stripped away. Then we write ∑n=1∞(−1)n−1bn, where (−1)n−1 is only the sign-flipper and bn carries all the real content. sN is the N-th partial sum (the running total after N terms), and s is the true infinite sum when it exists.
By bracket-squeeze we mean the core proof move: grouping the terms into brackets like (b1−b2)+(b3−b4)+⋯ so each bracket is ≥0, which traps the partial sums between an increasing floor and a fixed ceiling b1 — that squeeze is what forces convergence.
"∑(−1)n−1n+1n converges by Leibniz because it alternates and each term is less than 1."
The error: condition 2 is violated — bn=n+1n→1=0. Boundedness by 1 is irrelevant; the series diverges by the nth-term test.
"bn=1,31,21,51,41,⋯→0 and alternates, so Leibniz gives convergence."
The error: bn is not monotone decreasing (it wiggles up). The bracket argument (b2k−1−b2k)≥0 breaks, so Leibniz simply does not apply.
"Since Leibniz proved s≤b1, we conclude s=b1 when terms are tiny after the first."
The error: an inequality is not an equality. s is pinned between s1 and s2=b1−b2, so s<b1 whenever b2>0.
"The series converges, so I can rearrange its terms freely without changing the sum."
The error: conditional convergence (like alternating harmonic) forbids free rearrangement — Riemann's theorem says you can make it sum to anything. Only absolutely convergent series rearrange safely (see Absolute vs Conditional Convergence).
"To check monotonicity I confirmed b5<b4, so bn is decreasing."
The error: one comparison isn't a pattern. You need bn+1≤bn for all (large) n, usually shown via f′(x)≤0 for f(x)=bx or an algebraic ratio/difference argument.
"bn→0 was enough to converge here, and ∑1/n has 1/n→0, so the harmonic series converges too."
The error: the alternation plus monotonicity did the work, not bn→0 alone. The plain harmonic series has no sign-flipping to trap partial sums, and it diverges.
Why must we group as (b1−b2)+(b3−b4)+⋯ rather than sum term by term?
Grouping exposes that each bracket is ≥0 (from decrease), which instantly shows the even partial sums are increasing — the first half of the Monotone Convergence setup.
Why do we regroup a second time as b1−(b2−b3)−⋯−b2m?
To get an upper bound: every new bracket is subtracted and non-negative, forcing s2m≤b1. Increasing plus bounded above then gives convergence by the Monotone Convergence Theorem.
Why does showing the even partial sums converge not finish the proof by itself?
A subsequence converging doesn't force the whole sequence to converge; the odd sums could head elsewhere. We must show both go to the same s.
Why is limbn=0 exactly the ingredient that merges the odd and even limits?
Because s2m+1=s2m+b2m+1, and b2m+1→0 makes the odd limit equal the even limit s+0=s. Without it the two limits differ and sN has no single limit.
Why does the error bound "first omitted term" fall out for free?
Since s lies between sN and sN+1, and those differ by exactly bN+1, the distance from sN to s cannot exceed that gap.
Why do we always check ∑bn separately even after Leibniz succeeds?
Leibniz only certifies convergence, not absolute convergence. Testing ∑bn tells you whether it's absolute or merely conditional — crucial for rearrangement and further manipulation.
At an endpoint the series often becomes alternating with decreasing terms, where absolute-convergence tests are inconclusive but Leibniz cleanly settles convergence.
If bn is eventually constant (say bn=c>0 for all large n), does Leibniz apply?
No. It's weakly decreasing but bn→c=0, so condition 2 fails and the series diverges by the nth-term test.
If bn=0 for infinitely many n, is the series still "alternating"?
Borderline: the definition wants bn>0. Zeros break the strict sign-flip pattern; you'd first drop the zero terms and reindex before applying the test.
What if bn+1=bn for some n (ties in the decrease)?
Fine — the test allows bn+1≤bn, so ties are permitted. Each bracket is still ≥0 (possibly =0), and the argument goes through.
A series is alternating and bn→0, but bn increases on a finite stretch then decreases forever after. Converges?
Yes. Convergence depends only on the tail; apply Leibniz from where monotonicity begins, since the finite front changes the sum but not whether it converges.
Can an alternating series converge even though it fails BOTH Leibniz conditions?
Yes — Leibniz is sufficient, not necessary. A cleverly arranged non-monotone, still-vanishing series could converge; Leibniz just wouldn't be the tool that proves it.
If every bn is the same as some convergent absolute series' terms, is conditional/absolute distinction still needed?
Yes — if ∑bn converges the alternating version converges absolutely, so "conditional" wouldn't apply. The distinction always hinges on ∑bn, never on the signs.
Recall One-line summary of every trap
Leibniz needs Down to Zero (decreasing and vanishing); it only proves convergence, gives an upper bound not the value, and never tells you absolute vs conditional — check ∑bn for that.