Maano f(x)=(1+x)n. Hum ek power series f(x)=∑arxr banate hain jahan ar=r!f(r)(0).
Baar baar differentiate karo:
f(x)=(1+x)n⇒f(0)=1
f′(x)=n(1+x)n−1⇒f′(0)=n
f′′(x)=n(n−1)(1+x)n−2⇒f′′(0)=n(n−1)
f′′′(x)=n(n−1)(n−2)(1+x)n−3⇒f′′′(0)=n(n−1)(n−2)
Ye step kyun? Har derivative ek aur factor neeche kheenchti hai aur power ko 1 se ghataati hai, isliye x=0 par hume exactly numerator ka pattern milta hai.
Toh xr ka coefficient hai
ar=r!f(r)(0)=r!n(n−1)⋯(n−r+1).
Rational-index binomial series kis x ke liye converge karti hai?
∣x∣<1 ke liye.
Rational n ke liye (1+x)n mein xr ka coefficient kya hai?
r!n(n−1)⋯(n−r+1).
Positive integer n ke liye series terminate kyun hoti hai lekin rational n ke liye nahi?
Integer n ke liye ek factor (n−n)=0 aata hai; rational n ke liye koi bhi factor kabhi zero nahi hota, isliye ye infinite hai.
(1+x)−1 expand karo.
1−x+x2−x3+⋯
(1+x)1/2 ko 3 terms tak expand karo.
1+21x−81x2+⋯
(1+x)n ka first-order approximation kya hai?
1+nx.
(998)1/3 approximate karne ki trick kya hai?
Nearest cube factor out karo: 10(1−0.002)1/3, phir expand karo.
Binomial use karke 1.031 ki value 4 dp tak kya hai?
0.9709.
Recall Feynman: 12-saal ke bachche ko samjhao
Socho ek number jo 1 ke bahut paas hai, jaise 1.02. Iska square root lena ya isse 1 divide karna haath se annoying hai. Trick ye hai: jab bhi tum 1 ke paas ki cheezein multiply karte ho, "extra bit" (0.02) zyaadatar kaam karta hai, aur extra bit ka extra bit itna tiny hota hai ki tum use ignore kar sakte ho. Toh 1.02 ≈ 1 plus 0.02 ka aadha = 1.01. Binomial series ek recipe hai jo kehti hai: 1 lo, n times chhota bit add karo, phir thoda correction, aur ruk jao. Jab tak chhota bit 1 se kam hai, corrections shrink hote rehte hain aur tum jaldi ho jaate ho.