3.3.14Sequences & Series

Binomial theorem for rational indices (approximate values)

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WHY does the formula change for rational nn?

For integer nn, (nr)=n!r!(nr)!\binom{n}{r}=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} needs nrn\ge r, and (nn+1)=0\binom{n}{n+1}=0 kills the tail — the series stops.

For rational/negative nn, factorials of fractions don't exist, but the product form of the coefficient still does:

(nr)=n(n1)(n2)(nr+1)r!\binom{n}{r}=\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)\cdots(n-r+1)}{r!}

Nothing forces this to become zero, so the series never terminates.


HOW to derive it from first principles (Taylor/Maclaurin route)

Let f(x)=(1+x)nf(x)=(1+x)^n. We build a power series f(x)=arxrf(x)=\sum a_r x^r where ar=f(r)(0)r!a_r=\dfrac{f^{(r)}(0)}{r!}.

Differentiate repeatedly:

  • f(x)=(1+x)nf(0)=1f(x)=(1+x)^n \Rightarrow f(0)=1
  • f(x)=n(1+x)n1f(0)=nf'(x)=n(1+x)^{n-1}\Rightarrow f'(0)=n
  • f(x)=n(n1)(1+x)n2f(0)=n(n1)f''(x)=n(n-1)(1+x)^{n-2}\Rightarrow f''(0)=n(n-1)
  • f(x)=n(n1)(n2)(1+x)n3f(0)=n(n1)(n2)f'''(x)=n(n-1)(n-2)(1+x)^{n-3}\Rightarrow f'''(0)=n(n-1)(n-2)

Why this step? Each derivative pulls down one more factor and drops the power by 1, so at x=0x=0 we get exactly the numerator pattern.

So the coefficient of xrx^r is ar=f(r)(0)r!=n(n1)(nr+1)r!.a_r=\frac{f^{(r)}(0)}{r!}=\frac{n(n-1)\cdots(n-r+1)}{r!}.

Assemble: (1+x)n=1+nx+n(n1)2!x2+n(n1)(n2)3!x3+(1+x)^n = 1 + nx + \frac{n(n-1)}{2!}x^2 + \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}x^3+\cdots \qquad\blacksquare


The approximation shortcut (the 80/20)

Figure — Binomial theorem for rational indices (approximate values)

Worked Examples


Common Mistakes (Steel-man + Fix)


Forecast-then-Verify


Flashcards

For which xx does the rational-index binomial series converge?
For x<1|x|<1.
Coefficient of xrx^r in (1+x)n(1+x)^n for rational nn?
n(n1)(nr+1)r!\dfrac{n(n-1)\cdots(n-r+1)}{r!}.
Why does the series terminate for positive integer nn but not for rational nn?
For integer nn a factor (nn)=0(n-n)=0 appears; for rational nn no factor is ever zero, so it's infinite.
Expand (1+x)1(1+x)^{-1}.
1x+x2x3+1-x+x^2-x^3+\cdots
Expand (1+x)1/2(1+x)^{1/2} to 3 terms.
1+12x18x2+1+\tfrac12 x-\tfrac18 x^2+\cdots
First-order approximation of (1+x)n(1+x)^n?
1+nx1+nx.
Trick to approximate (998)1/3(998)^{1/3}?
Factor out nearest cube: 10(10.002)1/310(1-0.002)^{1/3}, then expand.
Value of 11.03\dfrac{1}{1.03} to 4 dp using binomial?
0.97090.9709.

Recall Feynman: explain to a 12-year-old

Imagine a number very close to 1, like 1.021.02. Taking its square root or dividing 1 by it is annoying by hand. The trick: whenever you multiply things close to 1, the "extra bit" (0.020.02) does most of the work, and the extra bit of the extra bit is so tiny you can ignore it. So 1.02\sqrt{1.02} ≈ 1 plus half of 0.020.02 = 1.011.01. The binomial series is just a recipe that says: take 1, add nn times the small bit, then a little correction, and stop. As long as the small bit is under 1, the corrections keep shrinking and you're done fast.

Connections

  • Binomial Theorem for Positive Integral Index — the terminating parent case.
  • Maclaurin & Taylor Series — this note is literally the Maclaurin series of (1+x)n(1+x)^n.
  • Infinite Geometric Series(1x)1=1+x+x2+(1-x)^{-1}=1+x+x^2+\cdots is exactly the GP sum 11x\frac{1}{1-x}.
  • Convergence of Series — the x<1|x|<1 condition.
  • Error & Approximation in Calculus — truncation error \approx first dropped term.

Concept Map

terminates after n+1 terms

generalise n to rational

uses product form coeff

never zero so

converges only if

derived from

a_r = f^r 0 over r!

small x shrinks terms

special cases

apply to

used in

Integer n binomial

Finite series

General binomial series

n n-1 ... n-r+1 over r!

Infinite series

|x| < 1

Maclaurin expansion

Approximation 1 + nx + ...

Reciprocals and roots

Estimate sqrt 1.02, 1/1.03

Hinglish (regional understanding)

Intuition Hinglish mein samjho

Dekho, jab power ek positive integer ho, tab (1+x)n(1+x)^n ka expansion finite hota hai — kuch terms ke baad khatam. Lekin jab power fraction ya negative ho, jaise 1.02=(1+0.02)1/2\sqrt{1.02}=(1+0.02)^{1/2} ya 11.03=(1+0.03)1\frac{1}{1.03}=(1+0.03)^{-1}, tab series infinite ban jaati hai. Ye series sirf tab kaam karti hai jab x<1|x|<1 ho, yaani xx chhota hona chahiye. Coefficient wahi rehta hai: n(n1)r!\frac{n(n-1)\cdots}{r!}, bas ab kabhi zero nahi hota isliye kabhi rukti nahi.

Faayda kya hai? xx chhota hai to x2,x3x^2, x^3 bahut chhote ho jaate hain, isliye pehle 2-3 terms hi lelo aur answer almost perfect. Formula yaad rakho: (1+x)n1+nx+n(n1)2x2(1+x)^n \approx 1 + nx + \frac{n(n-1)}{2}x^2. Bas "1, phir nxnx, phir aadha-product" — yehi mantra hai.

Sabse important trick: agar number (1±chhota)(1\pm\text{chhota}) form mein nahi hai, to nearest perfect square/cube nikaal kar factor out karo. Jaise (998)1/3=10(10.002)1/3(998)^{1/3}=10(1-0.002)^{1/3}. Ab x=0.002x=-0.002 chhota hai, expand karke jhatpat answer 9.993339.99333. Exam mein calculator nahi hota — yahi binomial approximation tumhara calculator ban jaata hai.

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Connections