Level 4 — ApplicationRisk & Money Management

Risk & Money Management

60 minutes60 marksprintable — key stays hidden on paper

Level: 4 (Application — novel problems, no hints) Time limit: 60 minutes Total marks: 60


Question 1 — Position Sizing Under Constraints (12 marks)

A trader has a 8,00,000₹8,00,000 account and follows a strict 1.5%1.5\% risk-per-trade rule.

(a) She wants to buy stock XYZ, currently trading at 640₹640, and place a stop-loss at 608₹608. Calculate the maximum number of shares she can buy. (4)

(b) Her broker only permits round lots of 5050 shares. Adjust your answer from (a) to the nearest permissible lot that does not exceed her risk limit, and state the actual rupee risk taken. (4)

(c) If she instead tightened her stop to 624₹624, explain quantitatively how her permissible position size changes, and comment on the trade-off she faces. (4)


Question 2 — Drawdown & Recovery (12 marks)

(a) A portfolio falls by 28%28\% from its peak. Calculate the percentage gain required on the reduced capital to return exactly to the previous peak. (4)

(b) A trader sets a maximum drawdown limit of 20%20\%, after which he halves his position sizes until recovery. Starting with 10,00,000₹10,00,000, he draws down to the 20%20\% limit. Using half-size trading, his average winning trade now nets +2%+2\% of remaining capital. How many consecutive such winning trades are needed to return to the original 10,00,000₹10,00,000? (Round up.) (5)

(c) Explain why a fixed daily loss limit protects a trader differently from a maximum drawdown limit. (3)


Question 3 — Kelly Criterion & Sizing (14 marks)

A strategy has a win probability of 55%55\%. Winning trades return +1.6R+1.6R and losing trades lose 1R-1R (where RR is the risk unit).

(a) State the Kelly formula for a bet with win probability pp, loss probability qq, and win/loss payoff ratio bb, then compute the full-Kelly fraction for this strategy. (6)

(b) The trader applies "half-Kelly." State the fraction of capital he allocates and give one reason practitioners prefer fractional Kelly. (4)

(c) Suppose the true win rate is actually only 50%50\% (the 55%55\% was over-estimated). Recompute full Kelly and interpret what a negative or near-zero result implies for the trader. (4)


Question 4 — Correlation & Portfolio Exposure (12 marks)

A trader holds three long positions, each risking 2%2\% of capital (6%6\% total nominal risk).

(a) Positions A and B are in the same sector with correlation +0.9\approx +0.9; position C is uncorrelated. Explain why the trader's effective risk is higher than a naive sum would suggest, and identify which positions behave almost like a single doubled position. (4)

(b) The trader caps total portfolio heat at 6%6\% but also caps exposure to any single sector at 3%3\%. If A and B are in the same sector, is the current allocation compliant? Justify. (4)

(c) Propose one concrete hedging action to reduce the correlated risk while keeping directional exposure to his best idea, and explain the mechanism. (4)


Question 5 — Risk of Ruin & Adaptive Sizing (10 marks)

(a) A trader risks a fixed fraction per trade and has a strategy with a positive edge. Explain qualitatively why risking a larger fraction per trade increases risk of ruin even when the edge is positive. (4)

(b) Using the simplified risk-of-ruin idea for a fixed number of units: a trader has a per-trade win probability of 60%60\% and risks 11 unit per trade with 1010 units of capital. State whether increasing capital to 2020 units raises or lowers risk of ruin, and explain why. (3)

(c) Describe a rule for "sizing down" after a losing streak and "sizing up" after wins, and explain how this anti-martingale approach interacts with risk of ruin. (3)

Answer keyMark scheme & solutions

Question 1 (12)

(a) Risk budget =1.5%×8,00,000=12,000= 1.5\% \times 8{,}00{,}000 = ₹12{,}000. Stop distance per share =640608=32= 640 - 608 = ₹32. Shares =12,000/32=375= 12{,}000 / 32 = 375 shares. (4) (1 for risk budget, 1 for stop distance, 2 for division & answer)

(b) Round lots of 50 not exceeding 375 → 350350 shares (7 lots), since 400 shares would risk 400×32=12,800>12,000400\times32 = ₹12{,}800 > 12{,}000. Actual risk =350×32=11,200= 350 \times 32 = ₹11{,}200. (4) (2 for choosing 350, 1 for rejecting 400, 1 for actual risk)

(c) New stop distance =640624=16= 640 - 624 = ₹16. Shares =12,000/16=750= 12{,}000 / 16 = 750 (position size doubles). (2) Trade-off: tighter stop allows a larger position (more shares/leverage on the same risk), but the price has less room to fluctuate, so probability of being stopped out on normal noise rises. (2)


Question 2 (12)

(a) After a 28%28\% loss, capital =0.72= 0.72 of peak. Required gain =10.721=0.3889=38.89%= \dfrac{1}{0.72} - 1 = 0.3889 = 38.89\%. (4) (2 for 0.72 factor, 2 for gain computation)

(b) After 20%20\% drawdown, capital =8,00,000= 8{,}00{,}000. Need to grow back to 10,00,00010{,}00{,}000. Growth factor needed =10/8=1.25= 10/8 = 1.25. Each win =×1.02= \times 1.02. Need 1.02n1.251.02^n \ge 1.25. nln1.25ln1.02=0.223140.01980=11.27n \ge \dfrac{\ln 1.25}{\ln 1.02} = \dfrac{0.22314}{0.01980} = 11.27n=12n = 12 trades. (5) (1 for target factor 1.25, 2 for log setup, 2 for n=12)

(c) A daily loss limit caps losses within a single session (e.g., a bad day of overtrading/tilt), stopping the trader before one session compounds into disaster — it is a short-horizon circuit breaker. A max drawdown limit governs the cumulative peak-to-trough decline over many sessions and triggers strategy-level changes (reduced sizing/stop trading). They protect against different failure modes: intraday emotional blowups vs. long-run capital erosion. (3)


Question 3 (14)

(a) Kelly: f=bpqb=pqbf^* = \dfrac{bp - q}{b} = p - \dfrac{q}{b}, where bb = win/loss payoff ratio, q=1pq = 1-p. (2) Here p=0.55p = 0.55, q=0.45q = 0.45, b=1.6b = 1.6. f=1.6(0.55)0.451.6=0.880.451.6=0.431.6=0.2687526.9%f^* = \dfrac{1.6(0.55) - 0.45}{1.6} = \dfrac{0.88 - 0.45}{1.6} = \dfrac{0.43}{1.6} = 0.26875 \approx 26.9\%. (4)

(b) Half-Kelly =0.5×0.26875=0.134413.4%= 0.5 \times 0.26875 = 0.1344 \approx 13.4\% of capital. (2) Reason: full Kelly is very volatile and highly sensitive to errors in estimated pp and bb; fractional Kelly greatly reduces drawdown volatility for only a modest reduction in long-run growth. (2)

(c) With p=0.5p = 0.5, q=0.5q = 0.5: f=1.6(0.5)0.51.6=0.80.51.6=0.31.6=0.187518.75%f^* = \dfrac{1.6(0.5) - 0.5}{1.6} = \dfrac{0.8 - 0.5}{1.6} = \dfrac{0.3}{1.6} = 0.1875 \approx 18.75\%. (2) Interpretation: still positive because the payoff ratio b=1.6>1b=1.6>1 gives an edge even at 50% win rate. (A negative/zero Kelly would mean no edge — the trader should not bet at all.) (2)


Question 4 (12)

(a) With correlation +0.9+0.9, A and B move almost together, so their risks add rather than diversify — in a drawdown both lose simultaneously. Effective combined risk of A+B is close to a single doubled (4%\approx 4\%) position, not two independent 2%2\% bets. C, being uncorrelated, genuinely diversifies. (4)

(b) Sector rule: A + B share a sector = 2%+2%=4%2\% + 2\% = 4\% sector exposure, which exceeds the 3%3\% single-sector cap → non-compliant on the sector limit (even though total heat 6%6\% meets the portfolio cap). (4)

(c) Acceptable hedging actions (any one, with mechanism): reduce A or B size; buy a put on the sector/one holding to cap downside; short a correlated sector ETF or index future against the pair to neutralize the shared systematic move while keeping his higher-conviction single-name upside. Mechanism: the hedge gains when the correlated positions fall, offsetting the doubled directional exposure. (4)


Question 5 (10)

(a) Larger fractional bets increase the variance of the equity curve. Even with a positive expected value, a run of consecutive losses at large size can drop capital below the recovery threshold; because losses compound multiplicatively, oversizing past the Kelly optimum reduces long-run growth and can drive geometric growth negative — so ruin probability rises sharply despite positive edge. (4)

(b) Increasing capital from 10 to 20 units (same 1-unit bet) lowers risk of ruin: more "buffer" units mean a longer adverse streak is required to reach zero, and with a positive per-trade edge (p=0.6p=0.6) the ruin probability falls roughly exponentially with the number of units of capital. (3)

(c) Anti-martingale rule: after wins, increase size (risk a larger fraction as equity grows / add units); after losing streaks, cut size (halve risk until recovery). This ties bet size to current equity, so losses are taken at smaller absolute size — shrinking the tail toward ruin — while wins are pressed at larger size. It contrasts with martingale (increasing size after losses), which dramatically raises risk of ruin. (3)

[
  {"claim":"Q1a shares = 375","code":"risk=0.015*800000; dist=640-608; result=(risk/dist==375)"},
  {"claim":"Q1b actual risk at 350 shares = 11200 and 400 exceeds budget","code":"budget=12000; result=(350*32==11200 and 400*32>budget)"},
  {"claim":"Q2a recovery gain approx 38.89%","code":"g=1/Rational(72,100)-1; result=(abs(float(g)-0.388888)<1e-4)"},
  {"claim":"Q2b needs 12 winning trades","code":"import math; n=math.ceil(math.log(1.25)/math.log(1.02)); result=(n==12)"},
  {"claim":"Q3a full Kelly = 0.26875","code":"f=(1.6*0.55-0.45)/1.6; result=(abs(f-0.26875)<1e-9)"},
  {"claim":"Q3c Kelly at p=0.5 = 0.1875","code":"f=(1.6*0.5-0.5)/1.6; result=(abs(f-0.1875)<1e-9)"}
]