Level 4 — ApplicationOptions Strategies

Options Strategies

60 minutes50 marksprintable — key stays hidden on paper

Level 4 (Application: novel problems, no hints) Time limit: 60 minutes Total marks: 50

Assume all options are on the same underlying, European-style unless stated, lot size = 1 unit unless specified, and ignore commissions and interest/dividends unless told otherwise. Premiums and strikes are in the same currency units.


Q1. (10 marks) A trader is mildly bullish on stock XYZ trading at 102.Sheconstructsabullcallspreadbybuyingthe100strikecallfor102. She constructs a **bull call spread** by buying the 100-strike call for 6.20 and selling the 110-strike call for $2.30.

(a) State the net debit and the maximum loss. (2) (b) Compute the breakeven price at expiry. (2) (c) Compute the maximum profit. (2) (d) The stock closes at $107.50 at expiry. Compute her net profit/loss. (2) (e) Give one reason a trader would prefer this spread over simply buying the 100-strike call outright. (2)


Q2. (12 marks) An investor holds 100 shares of ABC bought at 48.WithABCnowat48. With ABC now at 55, he builds a collar for the next month by buying the 52-strike put for 1.40andsellingthe58strikecallfor1.40 and selling the 58-strike call for 1.10.

(a) State the net premium paid or received to establish the collar. (2) (b) Compute the maximum profit of the whole position (shares + options) at expiry, relative to his original 48cost.(3)(c)Computethemaximumlossofthewholepositionrelativetohis48 cost. **(3)** (c) Compute the maximum loss of the whole position relative to his 48 cost. (3) (d) At what stock price at expiry does the total position break even relative to $48? (2) (e) Explain in one sentence why a collar is described as "financing downside protection with capped upside." (2)


Q3. (12 marks) A trader expecting a large move but unsure of direction sets up a long strangle on stock QRS at 200:buythe210strikecallfor200: buy the 210-strike call for 3.50 and buy the 190-strike put for $3.00.

(a) Compute the total premium (cost) of the strangle. (1) (b) Compute both breakeven prices. (3) (c) Compute the profit if QRS closes at 178atexpiry.(2)(d)Alongstraddleatthe200strikewouldcostthe200call(178 at expiry. **(2)** (d) A **long straddle** at the 200 strike would cost the 200-call (6.10) plus the 200-put ($5.40). State one advantage and one disadvantage of the strangle versus this straddle. (3) (e) The trader believes implied volatility is currently very low and likely to rise before a scheduled event. Explain why this supports the long strangle choice on both a directional and a volatility (vega) basis. (3)


Q4. (10 marks) A trader sells an iron condor on index INDX (at 5000) for a 30-day expiry with these four legs:

  • Sell 5100 call for 28,Buy5200callfor28, Buy 5200 call for 12
  • Sell 4900 put for 30,Buy4800putfor30, Buy 4800 put for 10

(a) Compute the net credit received. (2) (b) Compute the maximum profit and the profit zone (range of INDX at expiry giving max profit). (2) (c) Compute the maximum loss. (3) (d) Compute both breakeven points. (3)


Q5. (6 marks) For each of the following market views, name the single most appropriate strategy from the chapter and justify in one line using both the directional view and the implied-volatility (IV) condition.

(a) Neutral view, expect the underlying to stay range-bound, IV is high and expected to fall. (2) (b) Strongly bullish, IV is low, want defined risk and lower cost than a long call. (2) (c) Own 500 shares at a large unrealised gain, want cheap crash protection, willing to cap upside. (2)


Answer keyMark scheme & solutions

Q1 — Bull Call Spread (10)

(a) Net debit = 6.206.20 − 2.30 = 3.90.Maximumloss=netdebit=3.90**. Maximum loss = net debit = **3.90 (occurs if both calls expire worthless, i.e. price ≤ 100). (1 debit + 1 max loss)

(b) Breakeven = lower strike + net debit = 100+100 + 3.90 = $103.90. (1 formula + 1 value) — above this the long call's intrinsic value exceeds the paid debit.

(c) Max profit = strike difference − net debit = (110 − 100) − 3.90 = 10 − 3.90 = $6.10 (for price ≥ 110). (1 + 1)

(d) At 107.50:long100callworth107.50: long 100 call worth 7.50; short 110 call worth 0.Payoff=7.500=7.50;netP/L=7.503.90=+0. Payoff = 7.50 − 0 = 7.50; net P/L = 7.50 − 3.90 = **+3.60 profit**. (1 payoff + 1 net)

(e) Any valid reason: lower net cost/reduced capital outlay; short call premium reduces breakeven; reduces effect of time decay/vega since it's a defined-risk debit spread. (2)


Q2 — Collar (12)

(a) Net premium = put paid − call received = 1.40 − 1.10 = $0.30 net debit (paid). (2)

(b) Upside is capped at the short call strike 58.Maxsharegain=5848=10,minusnetcollarcost0.30=58. Max share gain = 58 − 48 = 10, minus net collar cost 0.30 = **9.70**. (1 cap logic + 1 arithmetic + 1 net cost inclusion)

(c) Downside protected at put strike 52.Maxsharelossfloor=5248=+52. Max share loss floor = 52 − 48 = +2 (still a gain from cost basis), minus net cost 0.30 = **+1.70.Sothe"maximumlossrelativeto1.70**. So the "maximum loss relative to 48" is actually a minimum profit of +$1.70 (the put strike is above his cost, so he cannot lose). (1 floor at 52 + 1 subtract cost + 1 correct sign/interpretation)

(d) Because the protected floor (+1.70)isalreadypositive,thetotalpositionneverbreaksevenintoalossitisprofitableacrossallexpiryprices.Formally,"breakevenvs1.70) is already positive, the total position **never breaks even into a loss** — it is profitable across all expiry prices. Formally, "breakeven vs 48 cost" would require a value of 48; since the minimum outcome is $49.70 equivalent, there is no losing breakeven. (2 — accept: "position is always ≥ +1.70, no breakeven below profit")

(e) The premium from the sold call (which caps upside) pays for the protective put (downside protection), so protection is financed at low/zero net cost in exchange for surrendering gains above the call strike. (2)


Q3 — Long Strangle (12)

(a) Cost = 3.50 + 3.00 = $6.50. (1)

(b) Upper breakeven = call strike + total cost = 210 + 6.50 = 216.50.Lowerbreakeven=putstriketotalcost=1906.50=216.50**. Lower breakeven = put strike − total cost = 190 − 6.50 = **183.50. (1 formula + 1 upper + 1 lower)

(c) At 178:put(190strike)intrinsic=190178=12;callworthless.Profit=126.50=+178: put (190 strike) intrinsic = 190 − 178 = 12; call worthless. Profit = 12 − 6.50 = **+5.50**. (1 payoff + 1 net)

(d) Advantage of strangle: cheaper (6.50 vs 11.50), lower max loss / lower capital. Disadvantage: wider breakevens (needs a larger move to profit — 183.50/216.50 vs straddle's 188.50/211.50). (1 advantage + 1 disadvantage + 1 quantified/clear) (Straddle breakevens: 200 ± 11.50 = 188.50 and 211.50.)

(e) Directional: an expected large move (either direction) around the event favours a long-volatility, market-neutral structure. Vega: long options have positive vega, so buying when IV is low and expected to rise means the position gains from the IV increase even before the move, and entry premium is cheaper. (1 directional + 1 vega mechanism + 1 low-IV entry advantage)


Q4 — Iron Condor (10)

(a) Net credit = (28 − 12) + (30 − 10) = 16 + 20 = $36. (1 call spread credit + 1 put spread credit → 2)

(b) Max profit = net credit = $36, achieved when all options expire worthless, i.e. INDX between the two short strikes: 4900 ≤ INDX ≤ 5100. (1 profit + 1 zone)

(c) Wing width = 100 on each side. Max loss = wing width − net credit = 100 − 36 = $64 (occurs if INDX ≤ 4800 or ≥ 5200). (1 wing width + 1 subtract credit + 1 value)

(d) Upper breakeven = short call strike + net credit = 5100 + 36 = 5136. Lower breakeven = short put strike − net credit = 4900 − 36 = 4864. (1 formula + 1 upper + 1 lower)


Q5 — Strategy Selection by View & IV (6)

(a) Short iron condor (or short strangle) — neutral/range-bound view collects premium, and high IV expected to fall gives positive theta and short-vega gains; iron condor gives defined risk. (2)

(b) Bull call spread — bullish directional view with defined risk; low IV makes the net-debit long-call-heavy structure cheaper than a naked long call while still cheaper than buying a single call. (2) (Accept "long call" only if defined-risk + cost not emphasised; bull call spread is the better fit for "lower cost + defined risk.")

(c) Collar (buy protective put, sell covered call) — protects an existing long position cheaply by financing the put with a sold call, capping upside as accepted. (2)


[
  {"claim":"Q1 breakeven 103.90, max profit 6.10, P/L at 107.50 is 3.60","code":"debit=6.20-2.30; be=100+debit; maxp=(110-100)-debit; pl=(107.50-100)-debit; result=(be==103.90 and maxp==6.10 and abs(pl-3.60)<1e-9)"},
  {"claim":"Q3 strangle breakevens 216.50/183.50, profit at 178 is 5.50","code":"cost=3.50+3.00; ub=210+cost; lb=190-cost; prof=(190-178)-cost; result=(ub==216.50 and lb==183.50 and prof==5.50)"},
  {"claim":"Q4 iron condor credit 36, max loss 64, breakevens 5136/4864","code":"credit=(28-12)+(30-10); maxloss=100-credit; ube=5100+credit; lbe=4900-credit; result=(credit==36 and maxloss==64 and ube==5136 and lbe==4864)"},
  {"claim":"Q2 collar net cost 0.30 and min outcome 1.70 above cost","code":"netcost=1.40-1.10; floor=(52-48)-netcost; cap=(58-48)-netcost; result=(abs(netcost-0.30)<1e-9 and abs(floor-1.70)<1e-9 and abs(cap-9.70)<1e-9)"}
]