Options Basics
Level 4 (Application: novel problems, no hints) Time Limit: 60 minutes Total Marks: 50
Q1. (10 marks) A trader observes the following quotes for stock XYZ (spot = ₹1,020), expiry in one month:
| Strike | Call Premium | Put Premium |
|---|---|---|
| 1000 | 38 | 14 |
| 1020 | 25 | 22 |
| 1040 | 15 | 33 |
(a) For each of the three call options, state the moneyness (ITM/ATM/OTM) and compute the intrinsic value and time value. (6) (b) The 1020 call and 1020 put both have the same strike but different premiums. Explain in words why the call premium exceeds the put premium here, referencing intrinsic and time value. (4)
Q2. (10 marks) A trader buys one lot (50 shares) of the 1040 call above for a premium of ₹15. (a) Compute the breakeven price at expiry. (2) (b) Compute the trader's total profit or loss (in ₹) if XYZ closes at 1030, at 1055, and at 1080 on expiry. (6) (c) State the maximum possible loss and describe the theoretical maximum profit. (2)
Q3. (10 marks) Consider the seller (writer) of the 1000 put option (premium ₹14, lot size 50). (a) Draw/describe the payoff profile and give the breakeven price. (3) (b) Compute the writer's profit or loss at expiry prices of 1010, 990, and 960. (4) (c) The writer is holding an American-style put. Explain one scenario in which the writer could be assigned before expiry, and how this differs from a European put. (3)
Q4. (12 marks) An option chain for index NIFTY (spot = 22,000, expiry today) shows:
| Strike | Call OI | Put OI |
|---|---|---|
| 21800 | 1,20,000 | 3,50,000 |
| 21900 | 1,50,000 | 2,80,000 |
| 22000 | 2,00,000 | 2,20,000 |
| 22100 | 3,40,000 | 1,40,000 |
| 22200 | 4,10,000 | 90,000 |
(a) Compute the overall Put-Call Ratio (PCR) by open interest. (3) (b) Interpret the PCR value: what does it suggest about market sentiment, and what is one caveat to relying on PCR alone? (3) (c) Identify the strike likely acting as strong resistance and the strike likely acting as strong support, justifying with OI reasoning. (3) (d) A trader is bullish. Using this chain, recommend whether buying a 22100 call or selling a 21800 put is more consistent with a "limited-loss" preference, and justify. (3)
Q5. (8 marks) State whether each is TRUE or FALSE and give a one-line justification: (a) An option that is deep ITM has almost all of its premium as time value. (2) (b) A European call cannot be exercised before expiry, so it can never be worth more than an equivalent American call. (2) (c) At expiry, an OTM option's time value and intrinsic value are both zero. (2) (d) The maximum loss for an option buyer is always the premium paid. (2)
Answer keyMark scheme & solutions
Q1 (10 marks)
(a) For a call: intrinsic value = max(Spot − Strike, 0); time value = premium − intrinsic. Spot = 1020.
- 1000 call: Spot > Strike ⇒ ITM. Intrinsic = 1020−1000 = 20. Time value = 38−20 = 18. (2)
- 1020 call: Spot = Strike ⇒ ATM. Intrinsic = 0. Time value = 25−0 = 25. (2)
- 1040 call: Spot < Strike ⇒ OTM. Intrinsic = 0. Time value = 15−0 = 15. (2)
(b) At the 1020 strike the call and put are both ATM (intrinsic = 0), so both premiums are pure time value. The call premium (25) exceeds the put premium (22) largely because of the cost-of-carry / interest effect (put–call parity: C − P = S − K·e^(−rt) > 0 when S = K and r > 0). A call buyer defers paying for the stock, giving the call extra value over the put. (2 marks for identifying both are pure time value; 2 marks for the carry/parity reasoning.)
Q2 (10 marks)
(a) Long call breakeven = Strike + Premium = 1040 + 15 = ₹1,055. (2)
(b) Per-share P/L = max(S−1040,0) − 15; multiply by lot 50. (2 each)
- S = 1030: payoff = max(−10,0)=0; P/L per share = −15; total = 50×(−15) = −₹750.
- S = 1055: payoff = 15; P/L = 15−15 = 0; total = ₹0 (breakeven).
- S = 1080: payoff = 40; P/L = 40−15 = 25; total = 50×25 = +₹1,250.
(c) Maximum loss = premium paid = 15×50 = ₹750 (occurs at any S ≤ 1040). Maximum profit is theoretically unlimited since the stock price can rise without bound. (2)
Q3 (10 marks)
(a) Short put: writer keeps premium if S ≥ strike; loss grows as S falls below strike. Breakeven = Strike − Premium = 1000 − 14 = ₹986. Payoff = +premium for S ≥ 1000, declining linearly below, max profit = premium (₹14/share), large loss potential down to S=0. (3)
(b) Per-share P/L for short put = 14 − max(1000−S, 0). (≈1.3 each)
- S = 1010: put expires worthless; P/L = +14/share ⇒ 50×14 = +₹700.
- S = 990: intrinsic = 10; P/L = 14−10 = +4/share ⇒ +₹200.
- S = 960: intrinsic = 40; P/L = 14−40 = −26/share ⇒ 50×(−26) = −₹1,300.
(c) An American put can be exercised by the holder at any time; the writer may be assigned early, e.g. when the put goes deep ITM (S well below strike) or around a dividend / when interest makes early exercise optimal — the holder exercises to capture intrinsic value immediately. A European put can only be exercised at expiry, so the writer cannot be assigned before the expiry date. (3)
Q4 (12 marks)
(a) PCR (OI) = Total Put OI / Total Call OI. Total Put OI = 350000+280000+220000+140000+90000 = 1,080,000. Total Call OI = 120000+150000+200000+340000+410000 = 1,220,000. PCR = 1,080,000 / 1,220,000 = 0.885 (≈0.89). (3)
(b) PCR < 1 means more call OI than put OI, generally read as mildly bearish-to-neutral / cautious sentiment (heavier call writing above spot). Caveat: PCR is a contrarian/context indicator — extreme readings can signal reversals, and OI alone doesn't distinguish buyers from writers, so it should not be used in isolation. (3)
(c) Resistance ≈ 22200 — highest call OI (4,10,000); heavy call writing above spot caps upside. Support ≈ 21800 — highest put OI (3,50,000); heavy put writing below spot cushions downside. (3)
(d) Buying the 22100 call gives a bullish position with limited loss = premium paid. Selling the 21800 put is also bullish but carries large (near-unlimited to zero) downside risk if the market falls. For a "limited-loss" preference, the long 22100 call is more consistent. (3)
Q5 (8 marks)
- (a) FALSE — deep ITM options are dominated by intrinsic value; time value is small. (2)
- (b) FALSE — a European call is generally worth the same as an American call on a non-dividend stock (early exercise of a call is not optimal); it is never worth more, but "can never be worth more" as a blanket loses no value — the given reasoning about being cheaper is what matters. Statement claims it "can never be worth more" which is essentially true for calls; the reasoning ("because it cannot be exercised early") is flawed — accept FALSE with correct explanation that early exercise adds no value for calls. (2) (Award full marks for TRUE-with-correct-reasoning OR FALSE-with-correct-reasoning; key point: American ≥ European always, equal for non-dividend calls.)
- (c) TRUE — at expiry there is no time left (time value = 0) and OTM means intrinsic = 0. (2)
- (d) TRUE — a buyer can lose at most the premium paid; downside is capped. (2)
[
{"claim":"1000 call time value = 18","code":"premium=38; intrinsic=max(1020-1000,0); tv=premium-intrinsic; result = (tv==18)"},
{"claim":"1040 call breakeven = 1055","code":"be=1040+15; result = (be==1055)"},
{"claim":"Long 1040 call P/L at S=1080, lot 50 = 1250","code":"S=1080; pl=(max(S-1040,0)-15)*50; result = (pl==1250)"},
{"claim":"Short 1000 put P/L at S=960, lot 50 = -1300","code":"S=960; pl=(14-max(1000-S,0))*50; result = (pl==-1300)"},
{"claim":"PCR (OI) approx 0.885","code":"puts=350000+280000+220000+140000+90000; calls=120000+150000+200000+340000+410000; pcr=Rational(puts,calls); result = (abs(float(pcr)-0.885)<0.005)"}
]