Level 4 — ApplicationMicrobiology

Microbiology

60 minutes60 marksprintable — key stays hidden on paper

Level 4 — Application (novel/unseen problems, no hints) Time limit: 60 minutes Total marks: 60

Answer all questions. Show all reasoning and calculations.


Question 1 — Bacterial growth kinetics (14 marks)

A microbiologist inoculates a sterile broth with an E. coli culture. After a lag phase, the count reaches 5×1045 \times 10^{4} cells mL⁻¹ at time t=0t = 0 h. During exponential growth the population is measured again at t=3t = 3 h and found to be 3.2×1063.2 \times 10^{6} cells mL⁻¹.

(a) Calculate the number of generations (divisions) that occurred between t=0t=0 and t=3t=3 h. (3)

(b) Determine the generation (doubling) time in minutes. (3)

(c) Assuming exponential growth continued unchanged, predict the cell density at t=5t = 5 h. (3)

(d) In reality the measured density at t=5t = 5 h was much lower than your prediction. Identify the growth phase likely responsible and give two distinct physiological reasons why the culture departs from exponential growth. (3)

(e) Explain why viable count (plating) and turbidity (optical density) methods can give different results during the death phase. (2)


Question 2 — Diagnostic problem: identifying an unknown pathogen (13 marks)

A clinical sample from a patient with a wound infection yields cocci in clusters. Gram staining retains the crystal violet–iodine complex, giving purple cells. The isolate grows on standard agar and is resistant to the antibiotic being trialled, which inhibits transpeptidase (the enzyme that cross-links peptidoglycan).

(a) State the Gram category and describe two cell-wall features consistent with the staining result. (3)

(b) Name the morphology and arrangement described, and explain what the arrangement reveals about the plane(s) of division. (3)

(c) The trial antibiotic targets transpeptidase. Explain the mechanism by which it would normally kill dividing cells, and propose one biochemical mechanism by which this isolate could be resistant. (4)

(d) The resistance gene is found on a plasmid. Explain how this resistance could spread rapidly to other, unrelated bacteria in the wound, naming the process. (3)


Question 3 — Viral strategy analysis (12 marks)

Two viruses infect the same host bacterium. Virus A immediately hijacks host machinery, produces many progeny, and bursts the cell within 30 minutes. Virus B integrates its genome into the host chromosome and remains dormant, being copied along with the host DNA for many generations before eventually activating.

(a) Name the cycle used by each virus and justify your choice using the description. (4)

(b) A researcher exposes a lawn of bacteria carrying Virus B to UV light. Predict and explain what happens to those cells. (3)

(c) A newly discovered virus contains RNA plus an enzyme allowing it to make DNA from its RNA template, which then integrates into the host genome. Name this class of virus, name the enzyme, and explain why this replication strategy has a high mutation rate. (5)


Question 4 — Non-cellular infectious agents & ecology (11 marks)

(a) A protein-only infectious agent causes a neurodegenerative disease. Explain how it propagates without any nucleic acid, and state one reason why it resists standard sterilisation. (4)

(b) Distinguish a viroid from a virus in terms of structure and typical host. (3)

(c) In a nutrient-cycling context, explain two distinct beneficial ecological roles played by microbes (bacteria and/or fungi), naming a specific process for each. (4)


Question 5 — Aseptic technique & experimental design (10 marks)

A student must determine whether a new antiseptic reduces bacterial growth, using nutrient agar plates.

(a) Describe three aseptic precautions the student should take when transferring bacteria to plates, and give the reason for each. (3)

(b) Design a valid comparative experiment, including a control, one measured variable, and one variable that must be kept constant. (4)

(c) After incubation, one plate shows fungal colonies with fluffy hyphae rather than bacterial colonies. Explain the most likely cause and how the student should interpret that plate. (3)

Answer keyMark scheme & solutions

Question 1 (14 marks)

(a) Number of generations nn from N=N02nN = N_0 \cdot 2^{n}: 2n=3.2×1065×104=64n=log264=6.2^n = \frac{3.2\times10^6}{5\times10^4} = 64 \Rightarrow n = \log_2 64 = 6. 6 generations. (Ratio 1 mark; log2\log_2 setup 1; answer 1) (3)

(b) Time elapsed = 3 h = 180 min over 6 generations: g=1806=30 min.g = \frac{180}{6} = 30 \text{ min.} (setup 1, division 1, answer with units 1) (3)

(c) From t=0t=0 to t=5t=5 h = 300 min ⇒ n=300/30=10n = 300/30 = 10 generations: N=5×104×210=5×104×1024=5.12×107 cells mL1.N = 5\times10^4 \times 2^{10} = 5\times10^4 \times 1024 = 5.12\times10^{7} \text{ cells mL}^{-1}. (generations 1, computation 1, answer 1) (3)

(d) Stationary phase (1). Any two reasons (1 each): nutrient depletion; accumulation of toxic waste products (e.g. acids); reduced oxygen/space; rate of division ≈ rate of death. (3)

(e) Viable count measures only living, culturable cells (falls in death phase); turbidity/OD measures all cells including dead intact cells and debris, which still scatter light — so OD stays higher/flat while viable count drops. (2)


Question 2 (13 marks)

(a) Gram-positive (1). Features (any two, 1 each): thick peptidoglycan layer retaining crystal violet–iodine; no outer lipopolysaccharide membrane; teichoic acids present. (3)

(b) Morphology: cocci (spherical); arrangement: clusters (staphylo-) (1). Clusters indicate division in multiple/random planes (2), unlike chains which divide in one plane.

(c) Mechanism (2): transpeptidase cross-links peptidoglycan strands; inhibiting it produces a weak wall so that during growth/division the cell cannot withstand osmotic pressure and lyses. Resistance mechanism (any one, 2): enzyme that degrades/modifies the antibiotic (e.g. β-lactamase); altered target enzyme with reduced binding; efflux pump / reduced permeability.

(d) Conjugation (1): plasmid transferred through a pilus/direct contact from donor to recipient cell (1); because it is on a mobile plasmid it can cross between unrelated species (horizontal gene transfer), spreading resistance quickly (1). (3)


Question 3 (12 marks)

(a) Virus A: lytic cycle — immediate replication, progeny assembly and lysis/bursting of host (2). Virus B: lysogenic cycle — genome integrates as prophage, replicated passively with host DNA, dormant (2). (4)

(b) UV damages DNA and acts as an inducing stress; the prophage is induced to excise and switch to the lytic cycle (2), so the cells produce virus and lyse (1). (3)

(c) Retrovirus (1); enzyme reverse transcriptase (1); it synthesises DNA from the RNA template, which integrates as a provirus (1). High mutation rate because reverse transcriptase lacks proofreading (3′→5′ exonuclease) activity, so replication errors are not corrected (2). (5)


Question 4 (11 marks)

(a) A prion is a misfolded protein that induces normal cellular protein (PrP) to refold into the abnormal form, propagating in a chain reaction — no nucleic acid replication needed (3). Resists sterilisation because it is a protein without nucleic acid, so heat/UV/nucleases that target DNA/RNA do not destroy it; it is highly stable (1). (4)

(b) Viroid: small circular single-stranded RNA with no protein coat/capsid; infects plants. Virus: nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein capsid (± envelope); infects animals, plants or bacteria. (structure 2, host 1) (3)

(c) Any two (2 each): decomposition — saprotrophic bacteria/fungi break down dead organic matter releasing nutrients; nitrogen cycle — nitrogen-fixing bacteria (e.g. Rhizobium) convert N₂ to ammonia / nitrifying / denitrifying bacteria; symbiosis (mycorrhizae aiding plant nutrient uptake); carbon cycle recycling. Must name a specific process. (4)


Question 5 (10 marks)

(a) Any three (1 each, precaution + reason): flame the inoculating loop before/after use — kills contaminants; work near a Bunsen flame/updraught — prevents airborne contamination; lift petri lid at an angle only slightly — reduces settling of airborne microbes; flame the neck of culture bottles — sterilises rim. (3)

(b) Valid design (4): control = plate/disc with no antiseptic (or sterile water) (1); measured/dependent variable = zone of inhibition diameter or colony count (1); controlled variables (any, 1) = same bacterial species and concentration, same agar/volume, same incubation temperature and time; repeats for reliability (1). (4)

(c) Fluffy hyphae = fungal contamination (1), most likely from airborne spores due to a breach in aseptic technique (1); the plate is invalid/should be discarded and not used to judge the antiseptic (1). (3)

[
  {"claim":"6 generations give ratio 64", "code":"n=log(64,2); result = (n==6)"},
  {"claim":"Generation time is 30 min over 3h/6 gen", "code":"g=Rational(180,6); result = (g==30)"},
  {"claim":"Density at t=5h is 5.12e7", "code":"N=5*10**4*2**10; result = (N==51200000)"},
  {"claim":"2^10 = 1024 generations factor at 5h", "code":"result = (2**(300//30)==1024)"}
]