Level 4 — ApplicationImmune System

Immune System

60 minutes50 marksprintable — key stays hidden on paper

Level 4 Examination Paper (Application)

Time limit: 60 minutes
Total marks: 50
Instructions: Answer ALL questions. Apply your knowledge to the novel scenarios presented. No formula or fact sheets are provided.


Question 1 (Herd immunity & vaccination) — 10 marks

A measles outbreak occurs in a town of 40,000 people. Epidemiologists state that measles has a basic reproduction number R0=15R_0 = 15.

(a) Using the herd immunity threshold formula Hc=11R0H_c = 1 - \dfrac{1}{R_0}, calculate the minimum percentage of the population that must be immune to prevent sustained spread. (3)

(b) Calculate the maximum number of individuals in this town who can remain non-immune without losing herd protection. (3)

(c) A new pathogen has R0=2R_0 = 2. Explain, with reference to your calculated thresholds, why herd immunity is much easier to achieve for this pathogen than for measles. (4)


Question 2 (Primary vs secondary response) — 12 marks

A researcher injects a rabbit with antigen X on day 0 and again with the same antigen X on day 28. Antibody levels in blood are measured over time. On day 28 she also injects an unrelated antigen Y for the first time.

(a) Predict and compare the antibody response to antigen X after the day 28 injection versus after the day 0 injection. Refer to speed, magnitude, and antibody class. (5)

(b) The response to antigen Y after day 28 resembles the day 0 response to X, not the day 28 response to X. Explain why, using the concept of clonal selection. (4)

(c) Name the specific cell type responsible for the difference between the two X responses, and state where it originates. (3)


Question 3 (Antigen presentation & cell-mediated immunity) — 10 marks

A virus infects a person's lung epithelial cells. Explain how the immune system detects and destroys these virally-infected cells. In your answer include:

(a) Which MHC class the infected cell uses to display viral peptides, and why this class (not the other) is used. (4)

(b) The specific T cell type that recognises this display and its mechanism of killing. (4)

(c) One reason a phagocytosed extracellular bacterium would be presented differently. (2)


Question 4 (Immune malfunction — case analysis) — 10 marks

Two patients present at a clinic:

  • Patient A experiences sneezing, itchy eyes and swelling within minutes of exposure to pollen.
  • Patient B has joint damage caused by her own antibodies attacking cartilage proteins.

(a) Classify each patient's condition (allergy vs autoimmune) and justify. (4)

(b) For Patient A, name the antibody class and the immune cell whose degranulation releases histamine, and state one physiological effect of histamine. (4)

(c) Explain the term "loss of self-tolerance" in the context of Patient B. (2)


Question 5 (Passive immunity application) — 8 marks

A person is bitten by a snake and is given an injection of pre-made antivenom antibodies. Separately, a newborn baby receives antibodies via breast milk.

(a) Identify whether each case is active or passive immunity, and whether it is natural or artificial. (4)

(b) Explain why neither the snakebite victim nor the baby develops long-term immunity from these antibodies. (4)

Answer keyMark scheme & solutions

Question 1 (10 marks)

(a) Hc=1115=10.0667=0.9333=93.3%H_c = 1 - \frac{1}{15} = 1 - 0.0667 = 0.9333 = 93.3\%

  • Correct substitution (1); correct fraction 1/15 = 0.0667 (1); answer ≈ 93.3% (1). Why: below this fraction immune, each case still infects >1 person on average.

(b) Non-immune allowed = (10.9333)×40000=0.0667×40000=2667(1 - 0.9333) \times 40000 = 0.0667 \times 40000 = 2667 people (≈2666–2667).

  • Fraction non-immune 0.0667 (1); ×40,000 (1); ≈2667 (1).

(c) For R0=2R_0 = 2: Hc=11/2=0.5=50%H_c = 1 - 1/2 = 0.5 = 50\% (1). Only 50% must be immune vs 93.3% for measles (1). A lower threshold means fewer people need vaccination/prior infection to break transmission chains (1). Highly contagious pathogens (high R0R_0) require near-universal immunity (1).


Question 2 (12 marks)

(a) Day 28 (secondary) response to X: faster onset (1), much higher antibody magnitude/titre (1), predominantly IgG rather than initial IgM (1). Day 0 (primary) response: slower (lag phase), lower peak, IgM first then IgG (1). Clear comparison across all three criteria (1).

(b) Antigen Y is new, so no pre-existing memory cells specific to Y exist (1). Clonal selection: only lymphocytes with receptors matching an antigen are activated and proliferate (1). Y-specific naive cells must first be selected and expand, giving a slow primary-type response (1). X already has an expanded memory clone, hence rapid secondary response — but this is specific to X, not Y (1).

(c) Memory B cells (memory lymphocytes) (1) — long-lived, respond rapidly on re-exposure (1). Originate/mature in the bone marrow (B cells) (1). (Accept memory T cells maturing in thymus if candidate specifies T context.)


Question 3 (10 marks)

(a) MHC class I (1). All nucleated cells express MHC I (1). MHC I presents peptides from intracellular/endogenous proteins (e.g., viral proteins made inside the cell) (1); MHC II is used by professional APCs for extracellular/phagocytosed antigen, so is not appropriate for a virus replicating inside the cell (1).

(b) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells) (1) recognise viral peptide on MHC I (1). They release perforin (pores) and granzymes (1) inducing apoptosis of the infected cell (1).

(c) Extracellular bacteria are engulfed by phagocytes/APCs and displayed on MHC class II (1) to activate helper (CD4+) T cells — an exogenous pathway (1).


Question 4 (10 marks)

(a) Patient A = allergy (1): rapid hypersensitivity to a harmless external antigen (pollen) (1). Patient B = autoimmune disorder (1): immune system attacks the body's own proteins/tissues (1).

(b) Antibody class IgE (1); mast cells (accept basophils) degranulate (1) releasing histamine (1). Effect: vasodilation / increased capillary permeability / bronchoconstriction / mucus secretion / itching (any one) (1).

(c) Self-tolerance = failure to distinguish self from non-self (1); self-reactive lymphocytes were not eliminated/deactivated, so they attack the body's own cartilage antigens (1).


Question 5 (8 marks)

(a) Snakebite antivenom = passive, artificial (1)(1) — antibodies made externally, injected. Breast milk = passive, natural (1)(1) — pre-made antibodies transferred naturally.

(b) The recipient's own lymphocytes are not activated / no antigen exposure to trigger clonal selection (1). No memory cells are formed (1). Received antibodies are broken down/degraded over weeks (1), giving only short-term protection (1).


[
  {"claim":"Measles herd immunity threshold with R0=15 is about 93.3%","code":"Hc = 1 - Rational(1,15); result = abs(float(Hc)-0.9333) < 0.001"},
  {"claim":"Non-immune allowed in 40000 town at R0=15 is about 2667","code":"n = (1 - (1 - Rational(1,15)))*40000; result = abs(float(n)-2666.67) < 1"},
  {"claim":"Herd immunity threshold for R0=2 is 50%","code":"Hc2 = 1 - Rational(1,2); result = float(Hc2)==0.5"}
]