Level 4 — ApplicationGenetic Engineering & CRISPR

Genetic Engineering & CRISPR

60 minutes60 marksprintable — key stays hidden on paper

Level 4 — Application (novel/unseen problems, no hints) Time limit: 60 minutes Total marks: 60


Question 1 — Designing a cloning strategy (14 marks)

You want to clone a 1,200 bp human gene (GENX) into a plasmid vector. The vector's multiple cloning site (MCS) contains, in order, recognition sites for EcoRI (G^AATTC), BamHI (G^GATCC), and HindIII (A^AGCTT). The plasmid also carries an ampicillin-resistance gene (ampR) and a lacZ gene, into which the MCS is embedded.

You sequence GENX and find it contains one internal BamHI site but no EcoRI or HindIII sites.

(a) You wish to insert GENX into the vector in a fixed (directional) orientation. State which two enzymes you should use and explain why BamHI must be excluded. (4)

(b) Explain why using two different enzymes (rather than one enzyme cutting both ends) improves the ligation outcome. (3)

(c) After transformation, you plate bacteria on agar containing ampicillin and X-gal. Describe and explain the appearance of: (i) cells with no plasmid, (ii) cells with re-ligated empty plasmid, (iii) cells with plasmid + insert. (5)

(d) State one reason why some ampicillin-resistant colonies may still lack the correct insert despite blue/white screening. (2)


Question 2 — PCR quantitation and problem-solving (12 marks)

A researcher sets up a standard PCR beginning with 500 copies of a target sequence.

(a) Assuming 100% efficiency, derive an expression for the number of copies after nn cycles, and calculate the number of target copies after 25 cycles. (3)

(b) In practice, the researcher measures only 1.2×1071.2 \times 10^{7} copies after 25 cycles. Calculate the average amplification efficiency per cycle (as a factor, then as a percentage efficiency where 100% = doubling). (4)

(c) A colleague forgets to add primers to one tube. Predict and explain the result. (2)

(d) The reaction uses an annealing temperature far above the optimum. Predict the effect on yield and explain the mechanism. (3)


Question 3 — qPCR / RT-PCR interpretation (10 marks)

In a qPCR experiment, the Ct value is the cycle at which fluorescence crosses threshold. A control gene and a target gene are compared between two samples.

Sample Target gene Ct Reference gene Ct
Control 24.0 20.0
Treated 22.0 20.0

(a) Explain why RT-PCR (not standard PCR) is required if starting material is mRNA. (2)

(b) Using the ΔΔCt\Delta\Delta Ct method, calculate the fold change in target gene expression in the Treated sample relative to Control. Assume perfect doubling per cycle. Show working. (5)

(c) State whether the target gene is up- or down-regulated, and explain the relationship between Ct value and initial template amount. (3)


Question 4 — CRISPR editing design (14 marks)

A team wants to correct a single point mutation in a patient's cell that changes a codon from GAG (Glu) to GTG (Val) — the sickle-cell mutation. They have Cas9, base editors, and prime editors available.

(a) The desired correction converts a T·A base pair back to A·T (reversing the mutation). Explain why a standard cytosine base editor (C→T) cannot make this correction, and identify what class of edit (transition/transversion) is required. (4)

(b) Explain why Cas9 requires a PAM sequence, and describe the consequence for guide RNA design if no suitable PAM exists near the target base. (4)

(c) The team instead chooses a knock-in strategy using a repair template. Distinguish a knock-out from a knock-in in terms of the intended outcome and the DNA repair pathway typically exploited for each. (4)

(d) Explain one advantage of prime editing over standard HDR-based knock-in for this correction. (2)


Question 5 — DNA fingerprinting & electrophoresis (10 marks)

A gel electrophoresis run separates STR (short tandem repeat) fragments from a crime scene and three suspects.

(a) Explain the physical principle by which gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments, including the direction of migration. (3)

(b) A fragment of 400 bp migrates 3.0 cm; a 100 bp fragment migrates 6.0 cm on the same gel. A fourth fragment migrates 4.5 cm. Using the approximate linear relationship between migration distance and log10(size)\log_{10}(\text{size}), estimate the size of the fourth fragment. Show working. (4)

(c) Explain why STR loci, rather than protein-coding genes, are used in DNA fingerprinting. (3)

Answer keyMark scheme & solutions

Question 1 (14 marks)

(a) (4) Use EcoRI and HindIII (1). These flank the MCS and are absent from GENX so they cut only at the intended ends (1). BamHI must be excluded because GENX contains an internal BamHI site (1) — cutting there would fragment the gene / destroy it (1).

(b) (3) Two different enzymes produce two non-complementary sticky ends (1). This prevents the vector self-ligating/re-circularising without insert (1) and forces the insert in a single fixed (directional) orientation (1).

(c) (5)

  • (i) No plasmid → no ampRno growth on ampicillin (1).
  • (ii) Empty re-ligated plasmid → intact lacZ → functional β-galactosidase cleaves X-gal → blue colonies (1)(1 for reasoning).
  • (iii) Plasmid + insert → insert disrupts lacZ → no β-galactosidase → white colonies (1)(1 for reasoning).

(d) (2) Blue/white screening only reports lacZ disruption; a wrong-sized fragment or non-target DNA could also disrupt lacZ (1), or partial digestion/frameshift may give white colonies without the correct insert — colony PCR/sequencing needed to confirm (1).

Question 2 (12 marks)

(a) (3) Copies =N02n= N_0 \cdot 2^{n} (1). =500×225= 500 \times 2^{25} (1) =500×33,554,432=1.678×1010= 500 \times 33{,}554{,}432 = 1.678 \times 10^{10} copies (1).

(b) (4) N=N0(1+E)nN = N_0 (1+E)^{n}, so (1+E)25=1.2×107500=24,000(1+E)^{25} = \frac{1.2\times10^{7}}{500} = 24{,}000 (1). 1+E=240001/251+E = 24000^{1/25} (1) =eln(24000)/25=e10.086/25=e0.4034=1.497= e^{\ln(24000)/25} = e^{10.086/25} = e^{0.4034} = 1.497 (1). So amplification factor ≈ 1.497 per cycle; efficiency E=0.497E = 0.497 \approx 49.7% of the maximum (doubling = 100%) (1).

(c) (2) No primers → no site for DNA polymerase to initiate extension (1) → no amplification / no product (1).

(d) (3) Annealing temp too high → primers cannot anneal/hybridise to the template (1) → few or no primer–template duplexes form (1) → greatly reduced or zero yield (1).

Question 3 (10 marks)

(a) (2) mRNA cannot be amplified by DNA polymerase directly (1); reverse transcriptase first converts mRNA into cDNA, which is then amplified (1).

(b) (5)

  • ΔCtcontrol=24.020.0=4.0\Delta Ct_{control} = 24.0 - 20.0 = 4.0 (1)
  • ΔCttreated=22.020.0=2.0\Delta Ct_{treated} = 22.0 - 20.0 = 2.0 (1)
  • ΔΔCt=ΔCttreatedΔCtcontrol=2.04.0=2.0\Delta\Delta Ct = \Delta Ct_{treated} - \Delta Ct_{control} = 2.0 - 4.0 = -2.0 (1)
  • Fold change =2ΔΔCt=2(2.0)=22= 2^{-\Delta\Delta Ct} = 2^{-(-2.0)} = 2^{2} (1) =4-fold= \textbf{4-fold} (1).

(c) (3) Target gene is up-regulated (1). Lower Ct = threshold crossed earlier = more initial template (1); the treated sample crosses 2 cycles earlier, i.e. ~4× more starting target transcript (1).

Question 4 (14 marks)

(a) (4) A cytosine base editor performs C→T (with G→A on opposite strand) (1). Reversing GTG→GAG requires changing the T·A pair to A·T = an A→G on the sense strand (1), which a C→T editor cannot do (1). This is a transition (purine↔purine / pyrimidine↔pyrimidine), specifically requiring an adenine base editor (A→G) (1).

(b) (4) The PAM (e.g. 5′-NGG-3′ for SpCas9) is recognised by Cas9 and is required for DNA unwinding and cleavage (1); without PAM recognition Cas9 will not cut even with a matching guide (1). If no PAM lies near the target, the guide cannot be positioned to place the edit within the editing/cut window (1) → use a different Cas variant with altered PAM, or a different target strand/window (1).

(c) (4) Knock-out: disrupts/inactivates a gene (1), typically via NHEJ producing indels/frameshifts after a double-strand break (1). Knock-in: inserts or precisely replaces a defined sequence (1), typically via HDR using a supplied repair template (1).

(d) (2) Prime editing installs the precise edit without requiring a double-strand break (uses nickase + reverse transcriptase and pegRNA) (1), avoiding HDR's low efficiency and reducing indel byproducts / random insertions (1).

Question 5 (10 marks)

(a) (3) DNA is negatively charged (phosphate backbone) (1), so migrates toward the positive electrode (anode) under an electric field (1); the gel matrix sieves fragments so smaller fragments move faster/further (1).

(b) (4) Linear model: distance d=mlog10(size)+cd = m\log_{10}(\text{size}) + c. Using points (400 bp, 3.0) and (100 bp, 6.0): m=6.03.0log10100log10400=3.022.602=3.00.602=4.983m = \dfrac{6.0-3.0}{\log_{10}100 - \log_{10}400} = \dfrac{3.0}{2 - 2.602} = \dfrac{3.0}{-0.602} = -4.983 (1) cc: 3.0=4.983(2.602)+cc=3.0+12.97=15.973.0 = -4.983(2.602) + c \Rightarrow c = 3.0 + 12.97 = 15.97 (1) For d=4.5d = 4.5: 4.5=4.983log10S+15.97log10S=15.974.54.983=2.3024.5 = -4.983\log_{10}S + 15.97 \Rightarrow \log_{10}S = \dfrac{15.97-4.5}{4.983} = 2.302 (1) S=102.302200 bpS = 10^{2.302} \approx \textbf{200 bp} (1).

(c) (3) STR loci are highly polymorphic — repeat number varies greatly between individuals (1); they are non-coding, so under low selective pressure and highly variable (1), giving high discriminating power for individual identification (1).

[
  {"claim":"500*2^25 = 1.6777216e10 target copies after 25 cycles at 100% efficiency","code":"val = 500*2**25\nresult = (val == 16777216000)"},
  {"claim":"Average amplification factor per cycle for 500->1.2e7 in 25 cycles is ~1.497","code":"f = (Rational(12000000,500))**Rational(1,25)\napprox = float(f)\nresult = abs(approx - 1.497) < 0.005"},
  {"claim":"ddCt method: fold change = 2^-(-2) = 4","code":"dd = 2.0 - 4.0\nfold = 2**(-dd)\nresult = (fold == 4)"},
  {"claim":"Fourth fragment at 4.5cm estimated ~200 bp","code":"import sympy as sp\nm = (6.0-3.0)/(sp.log(100,10)-sp.log(400,10))\nc = 3.0 - m*sp.log(400,10)\nlogS = (4.5 - c)/m\nS = 10**logS\nresult = abs(float(S) - 200) < 5"}
]