4.3.17 · Maths › Calculus III — Sequences & Series
Ek Maclaurin series basically ek polynomial hai jo x = 0 ke paas ek complicated function hone ka natak karti hai.
YE KYU KAAM KARTA HAI? Kyunki ek smooth function ek hi point par poori tarah se pin down ho jaata hai apni value, slope, curvature, curvature-ki-rate-of-change, ... se. Agar aap x = 0 par SAARE derivatives match kar lo, toh aapne function ko (locally) match kar liya.
HUM KYA BANAATE HAIN: ek infinite polynomial a 0 + a 1 x + a 2 x 2 + … jiske derivatives 0 par function ke derivatives ke barabar hain.
Scratch se Derivation. Maano f ko ek power series ke roop mein likha ja sakta hai:
f ( x ) = a 0 + a 1 x + a 2 x 2 + a 3 x 3 + ⋯
a 0 dhundho: x = 0 rakho. x wale har term mar jaate hain → f ( 0 ) = a 0 . Kyun? 0 k = 0 .
a 1 dhundho: ek baar differentiate karo: f ′ ( x ) = a 1 + 2 a 2 x + 3 a 3 x 2 + ⋯ , phir x = 0 rakho → f ′ ( 0 ) = a 1 .
a 2 dhundho: dobara differentiate karo: f ′′ ( x ) = 2 a 2 + 6 a 3 x + ⋯ , x = 0 rakho → f ′′ ( 0 ) = 2 a 2 , toh a 2 = 2 f ′′ ( 0 ) .
General pattern: n baar differentiate karne par, x n term n ! a n ban jaata hai aur x = 0 par yahi akela bachta hai.
Intuition YE SABSE CLEAN KYU HAI
d x d e x = e x , toh har derivative e x ke barabar hai, aur e 0 = 1 . Saare coefficients ka numerator same hai: 1 .
KAISE: f ( n ) ( 0 ) = e 0 = 1 sabhi n ke liye, toh a n = n ! 1 .
e x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! x n = 1 + x + 2 ! x 2 + 3 ! x 3 + ⋯ ( all x )
e 0.1 ko 3 terms se estimate karo
1 + 0.1 + 2 0.01 = 1.105 . Ye step kyun? Hum bas x = 0.1 plug karte hain; jaldi truncate karna kaam karta hai kyunki n ! x n tezi se chhota hota jaata hai. True value 1.10517 … ✓
Intuition PATTERN ALTERNATE KYU KARTA HAI
sin ke derivatives cycle karte hain: sin → cos → − sin → − cos → sin . x = 0 par ye hain 0 , 1 , 0 , − 1 , … — toh sirf odd powers bachte hain alternating signs ke saath.
sin x ke liye KAISE: f ( 0 ) = 0 , f ′ ( 0 ) = 1 , f ′′ ( 0 ) = 0 , f ′′′ ( 0 ) = − 1 , …
sin x = x − 3 ! x 3 + 5 ! x 5 − ⋯ = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 )! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n + 1
cos x ke liye KAISE: f ( 0 ) = 1 , f ′ ( 0 ) = 0 , f ′′ ( 0 ) = − 1 , … — sirf even powers :
cos x = 1 − 2 ! x 2 + 4 ! x 4 − ⋯ = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n )! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n
Intuition Sanity check — parity
sin odd hai ⇒ sirf odd powers. cos even hai ⇒ sirf even powers. sin ko differentiate karne par cos milta hai, aur indeed d x d ( x − 6 x 3 ) = 1 − 2 x 2 . ✓
Intuition SIRF DIFFERENTIATE KYU NAHI KARTE
Aap ln ( 1 + x ) ko baar baar differentiate kar sakte ho, lekin chalak tarika use karta hai d x d ln ( 1 + x ) = 1 + x 1 , jo ek geometric series hai.
KAISE. Geometric series (∑ r n = 1 − r 1 se, r = − x rakh ke):
1 + x 1 = 1 − x + x 2 − x 3 + ⋯ ( ∣ x ∣ < 1 )
Term by term integrate karo, constant fix karne ke liye ln ( 1 + 0 ) = 0 use karo:
ln ( 1 + x ) = x − 2 x 2 + 3 x 3 − ⋯ = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ( − 1 ) n − 1 x n ( − 1 < x ≤ 1 )
x = − 1 par ye blow up kyun karta hai?
x = − 1 par, ln ( 0 ) = − ∞ aur series − 1 − 2 1 − 3 1 − ⋯ (negative harmonic series) diverge karta hai. Ye step kyun? Interval of convergence function ki domain ki problem se match karta hai.
Intuition YE PASCAL'S TRIANGLE KO GENERALISE KYU KARTA HAI
Positive integer n ke liye ye terminate ho jaata hai (ordinary binomial theorem). Kisi bhi real n ke liye ye ek infinite series hai — lekin same tarike se bana: 0 par derivatives se.
KAISE. f ( x ) = ( 1 + x ) n .
f ′ ( x ) = n ( 1 + x ) n − 1 , f ′′ ( x ) = n ( n − 1 ) ( 1 + x ) n − 2 , ..., f ( k ) ( x ) = n ( n − 1 ) ⋯ ( n − k + 1 ) ( 1 + x ) n − k .
x = 0 par: f ( k ) ( 0 ) = n ( n − 1 ) ⋯ ( n − k + 1 ) . k ! se divide karo:
( 1 + x ) n = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k n ) x k = 1 + n x + 2 ! n ( n − 1 ) x 2 + ⋯ ( ∣ x ∣ < 1 if n ∈ / Z ≥ 0 )
jahan ( k n ) = k ! n ( n − 1 ) ⋯ ( n − k + 1 ) .
1 + x , matlab n = 2 1
1 + 2 1 x + 2 2 1 ( − 2 1 ) x 2 + ⋯ = 1 + 2 1 x − 8 1 x 2 + ⋯
Ye step kyun? Bas n = 2 1 coefficients mein daalo. Check karo 1.21 : x = 0.21 → 1 + 0.105 − 0.0055 = 1.0995 ≈ 1.1 . ✓
Common mistake Common errors ko Steel-man karo
(a) n ! bhool jaana. Galat soch: "coefficients bas derivatives hain." Ye sahi kyun lagta hai: x = 0 par value-matching seedha lagta hai. Fix: har d x n d n x n = n ! hota hai, toh n ! se divide KARNA PADEGA.
(b) sin x = x − 3 x 3 use karna. Sahi lagta hai kyunki integrate karte waqt exponents drop hue lagte hain. Fix: denominator factorial 3 ! = 6 hai, 3 nahi.
(c) ln ( 1 + x ) mein x = 2 plug karna. Sahi lagta hai — ye toh formula hai, na? Fix: convergence sirf − 1 < x ≤ 1 ke liye hai; bahar, polynomial diverge karta hai chahe ln 3 exist karta ho.
(d) Geometric series mein sign ki galti: 1 + x 1 mein r = − x hai, jo alternating signs deta hai — sab + nahi.
Recall Feynman: ek 12-saal ke bachche ko samjhao
Socho tumhe sirf pata hai ki ek runner abhi kahan hai, plus uski speed, plus uski speed kitni tezi se badal rahi hai, aur aage bhi aisa hi. Itna kaafi hai unka poora path tumhare paas predict karne ke liye! Ek Maclaurin series curve ke liye yahi karta hai: ye x = 0 par height, slope, bend, bend-ka-bend copy karta hai, aur unhe 1 , x , x 2 , x 3 , … ke pieces ke roop mein stack karta hai. Har piece ko ek factorial se divide kiya jaata hai taaki ye baaki sabko dabaye nahi. Kaafi pieces jodo aur tumhari simple polynomial real curve se chipak jaayegi.
Mnemonic Paanchon yaad karo
"Every Sane Cat Loves Bananas" → E ˣ (sab n ! 1 ), S in (odd, alt), C os (even, alt), L n(1+x) (alt, / n ), B inomial. Aur: "factorials hamesha neeche."
Master Maclaurin coefficient formula a n = n ! f ( n ) ( 0 ) , toh f ( x ) = ∑ n ! f ( n ) ( 0 ) x n
n ! kyun aata haid x n d n x n = n ! , x = 0 par akela bachne wala term
e x ki series∑ n = 0 ∞ n ! x n = 1 + x + 2 ! x 2 + ⋯ , sabhi x ke liye valid
sin x ki series∑ ( 2 n + 1 )! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n + 1 = x − 6 x 3 + 120 x 5 − ⋯ (odd powers)
cos x ki series∑ ( 2 n )! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n = 1 − 2 x 2 + 24 x 4 − ⋯ (even powers)
ln ( 1 + x ) ki series + convergencex − 2 x 2 + 3 x 3 − ⋯ , valid − 1 < x ≤ 1
ln ( 1 + x ) jaldi derive kaise karo1 + x 1 = 1 − x + x 2 − ⋯ ko term-by-term integrate karo
Binomial series ( 1 + x ) n ∑ k ( k n ) x k = 1 + n x + 2 n ( n − 1 ) x 2 + ⋯ , ∣ x ∣ < 1 agar n ∈ / Z ≥ 0
1 + x ke pehle teen terms1 + 2 x − 8 x 2 + ⋯
sin mein sirf odd powers kyunsin ek odd function hai ⇒ even-power coefficients zero ho jaate hain
Match all derivatives at 0
Coefficient rule an equals fn0 over n!
Geometric series 1 over 1+x