Hum proof banate hain partial sums ko squeeze karke. Maano sN=∑n=1N(−1)n−1bn.
Step 1 — Even partial sums s2m dekho.s2m=(b1−b2)+(b3−b4)+⋯+(b2m−1−b2m).Yeh grouping kyun? Kyunki bn decrease ho raha hai, har bracket ≥0 hai. Aur non-negative brackets add karne se s2mbadhta hai jaise m badhta hai. Toh {s2m}increasing hai.
Step 2 — Dikhaao ki s2m upar se bounded hai. Alag tarike se regroup karo:
s2m=b1−(b2−b3)−(b4−b5)−⋯−b2m.Regroup kyun? Yahan har bracket ≥0 hai, aur hum unhe subtract kar rahe hain, saath mein b2m≥0 bhi subtract karte hain. Toh s2m≤b1.
Step 3 — Conclude karo ki even sums converge karte hain. Ek increasing sequence jo upar se bounded ho, converge karti hai (Monotone Convergence Theorem). Limit ko s bulao:
limm→∞s2m=s,s≤b1.
Step 4 — Odd sums ko joodo. Note karo ki s2m+1=s2m+b2m+1. Limits lo:
limm→∞s2m+1=s+limm→∞b2m+1=s+0=s.Yeh khatam kyun karta hai? Even aur odd partial sums same limit s share karte hain. Agar partial sums ki dono subsequences s pe jaati hain, toh poori sequencesN→s hoti hai. Isliye series converge karti hai. ■
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