Ek limit limx→af(x)=L ka matlab hai: hum f(x) ko L ke jitna chahein utna kareeb force kar sakte hain bas x ko a ke paas rakh ke. Formally, har ε>0 ke liye ek δ>0 hota hai aisa ki
0<∣x−a∣<δ⇒∣f(x)−L∣<ε.
Hum chahte hain ki ∣(f+g)−(L+M)∣ chhota ho. Regroup karo aur triangle inequality∣p+q∣≤∣p∣+∣q∣ use karo:
∣(f(x)+g(x))−(L+M)∣=∣(f(x)−L)+(g(x)−M)∣≤∣f(x)−L∣+∣g(x)−M∣.Ye step kyun? Hum total error ko "f ka error" + "g ka error" mein tod dete hain, jinmein se har ek ko hum control kar sakte hain.
Diye gaye ε>0 ke liye, δ1 choose karo jo ∣f−L∣<2ε banaye aur δ2 jo ∣g−M∣<2ε banaye. δ=min(δ1,δ2) lo. Tab dono ek saath hold hote hain:
∣(f+g)−(L+M)∣<2ε+2ε=ε.■ε ko ε/2+ε/2 mein kyun split kiya? Taaki dono halves milke exactly ε ban jayein.
Clever move hai add aur subtractLg(x):
fg−LM=fg−Lg+Lg−LM=g(f−L)+L(g−M).Ye step kyun? Ye "f ka wobbling" ko "g ke wobbling" se alag karta hai. a ke paas, g bounded hai (M ke kareeb), isliye g(f−L)→0, aur L(g−M)→0. Dono 0 par jaate hain, isliye product limit LM hai.
Pehle prove karo ki limg1=M1 (iske liye M=0 chahiye taaki g paas mein 0 se door rahe), phir f⋅g1 par product law apply karo. M=0 kyun chahiye?0 ki taraf jaane wali cheez se divide karna "blow up" kar deta hai — result exist karna zaroori nahi.
Socho do dost ek meeting spot ki taraf chal rahe hain. Ek L kursi par pahunchta hai, doosra M kursi par. Agar tum unke beech ki doori measure karo, toh wo L+M ki taraf jaayegi; agar tum unhe stack karo, toh L⋅M. Jaanna ki har dost kahan ja raha hai tumhe batata hai ki koi bhi combination kahan ja raha hai — jab tak tum kisi aisi dost se divide karne ki koshish nahi karte jo seedha zero par chala jaata hai, kyunki tab "share per person" explode ho jaata hai. Pura game yehi hai: limits +,−,× se slide kar jaate hain, aur ÷ se tabhi jab bottom zero ki taraf nahi ja raha ho.